What is the difference between the bones of the cranium and the facial bones? cheg

Answers

Answer 1

Explanation:

The main difference between skull and cranium is that the skull is composed of both facial bones and the cranium whereas the cranium is the upper part of the skull, composed of bones that do not move.

...

Bones of the Cranium and their Role.


Related Questions

The combining form referring to the bean-shaped organs that filter the blood and form urine is:_________

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The combining form referring to the bean-shaped organs that filter the blood and form urine is kidneys.

What are the functions of the kidneys?The kidney's main jobs are to produce urine and clean the blood. Each kidney eliminates waste products and other compounds that the body does not need. The most crucial job of the kidney is to purify blood by eliminating waste.The body needs protein to grow and heal itself.             However, as the body uses protein, waste products are produced.The accumulation and retention of these waste products is comparable to the body holding onto poison. Blood and hazardous waste are filtered by each kidney and then expelled in urine.Two crucial waste products are creatinine and urea.The “values” in blood tests reflect the function of the kidney. When both the kidneys fail, the value of creatinine and urea will be high in blood tests.

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The centrosome replicates during the s phase and begins to separate during the ______

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The centrosome replicates during the s phase and begins to separate during the M phase.

What does the M phase stand for?

mitosis

M stands for mitosis. This is where the cell actually partitions the two copies of the genetic material into the two daughter cells. After M phase completes, cell division occurs and two cells are left, and the cell cycle can begin again.

What happens during the M phase?

When a cell is in the M phase, it divides, first through nuclear division (mitosis), then through cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis). The DNA is replicated in the earlier S phase, and cohesins keep each replicated chromosome's two copies (known as sister chromatids) bound to one another.

What is happening at the S phase and the M phase?

In the eukaryotic cell cycle, chromosome duplication occurs during "S phase" (the phase of DNA synthesis) and chromosome segregation occurs during "M phase" (the mitosis phase).

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In the rostral medulla, if the lesion designated by the hash marks affected the anterolateral and dcml pathways, which side of the body would have impairments associated with these sensory modalities?

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In the rostral medulla, if the lesion designated by the hash marks affected the anterolateral and dcml pathways, the side of the body that would have impairments associated with these sensory modalities is left.

What is rostral medulla?

The rostral medulla (RM), or ventromedial nucleus of the spinal cord, is a group of neurons located close to the midline on the floor of the medulla oblongata.

The rostral medulla sends descending inhibitory and excitatory fibers to the dorsal horn spinal cord neurons.

Thus, in the rostral medulla, if the lesion designated by the hash marks affected the anterolateral and dcml pathways, the side of the body that would have impairments associated with these sensory modalities is left.

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The __________ of the medulla oblongata send(s) sympathetic signals to arteriolar smooth muscle, helping to maintain peripheral resistance.

Answers

The baroreceptors of the medulla oblongata send(s) sympathetic signals to arteriolar smooth muscle, helping to maintain peripheral resistance

What is the medulla oblongata?

The medulla oblongata is that part of the brain which controls involuntary actions.

Involuntary actions are actions we can't control.

Some common examples of involuntary actions are:

SneezingSweatingCoughingBlinking of the eyesPeristalsisConstriction and dilation of the blood vessels

So therefore, the baroreceptors of the medulla oblongata send(s) sympathetic signals to arteriolar smooth muscle, helping to maintain peripheral resistance

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Type your response in the box.

A forest fire damaged many trees in a forest. Squirrels and other plant-eating animals depend on these trees for food and shelter. Will the forest fire affect the carnivores of the ecosystem? Explain your answer.

Answers

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

The lack of trees causes the herbivores to have less shelter which leads them to be more exposed to carnivores so they might get eaten quicker. Slowly the amount of herbivores will die and there will be less food for the carnivores causing them to die aswell.

(I hope this helps!)

Failure to launch refers to a syndrome wherein some children fail to leave home by age _____.

Answers

Failure to launch refers to a syndrome wherein some children fail to leave home by age by the age of 30.

What is Failure to Launch Syndrome?

Failure to Launch syndrome refers to the inability of young adults to become self-sufficient and taking on adult responsibilities.

    Failure to Launch is usually determined by the Age of 30. This limits a persons participation in life because such an individual may be unable to do things or survive alone.

There are a lot of factors that may be responsible for failure to launch. some of these factors may emanate from the child's physical and social environment.

Some other factors that may lead to failure to launch include;

Mental health FactorParenting stylesFamily experienceParent-child relationship

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What other compound must be present along with urea for the urease enzyme to break down urea?

Answers

Water is the compound must be present along with urea for the break down of urea.Thus, option B is correct.

What does urea break down into?

Urea and water combined together and results  into the production of carbon dioxide and ammonia with the help of urease enzyme.

Urea + water = Carbon dioxide+ ammonia

Breakdown of urea occurs in a cycle known as urea cycle and it has five important steps:

Formation of carbamoyl phosphateSynthesis of citrullineCleavage of argininosuccinateGlucogenic and ketogenic amino acidsOxidation of Carbon skeleton of amino acids

Therefore,water is the compound must be present during the process of break down of urea.Thus, option B is correct.

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Your question is incomplete,but most probably your full question was,

What other compound must be present along with urea for the urease enzyme to break down urea?

A.ammonia

B.water

C. pyruvic acid

D. carbon dioxide

________ also known as birds, are now thought to be members of the large theropod family tree.

Answers

Dinosaurs also known as birds, are now thought to be members of the large theropod family tree.

Theropods, a group of two-legged dinosaurs that includes the enormous Tyrannosaurus rex and the smaller velociraptors, are the ancestors of modern birds. When compared to most current birds, the theropods that were most closely related to avians were giants, had large snouts, big teeth, and little space in between the ears.

Archaeopteryx, a hybrid animal with feathered wings but dinosaur teeth and a long bony tail, is the only fossil connection between birds and dinosaurs. These animals appeared to have evolved into birds in just 10 million years, a mere flash in evolutionary history, by acquiring feathers, wings, and flight.

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The mrna sequence of a particular gene is 5′-augccuaucguaaca-3′. What is the sequence of the template dna from which this mrna was copied?

Answers

mRNA: 5′-AUGCCUAUCGUAACA-3′

DNA: 3′-TACGGATAGCATTGT-5′

In molecular biology, messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) is a single-stranded molecule of RNA that corresponds to the genetic sequence of a gene, and is read by a ribosome in the process of synthesizing a protein.

mRNA is created during the process of transcription, where an enzyme (RNA polymerase) converts the gene into primary transcript mRNA (also known as pre-mRNA). This pre-mRNA usually still contains introns, regions that will not go on to code for the final amino acid sequence. These are removed in the process of RNA splicing, leaving only exons, regions that will encode the protein. This exon sequence constitutes mature mRNA. Mature mRNA is then read by the ribosome, and, utilising amino acids carried by transfer RNA (tRNA), the ribosome creates the protein. This process is known as translation. All of these processes form part of the central dogma of molecular biology, which describes the flow of genetic information in a biological system.

As in DNA, genetic information in mRNA is contained in the sequence of nucleotides, which are arranged into codons consisting of three ribonucleotides each. Each codon codes for a specific amino acid, except the stop codons, which terminate protein synthesis. The translation of codons into amino acids requires two other types of RNA: transfer RNA, which recognizes the codon and provides the corresponding amino acid, and ribosomal RNA (rRNA), the central component of the ribosome's protein-manufacturing machinery.

The concept of mRNA was developed by Sydney Brenner and Francis Crick in 1960. While performing the experimental verifications, François Jacob and Jacques Monod coined the name "messenger RNA". In 1961, mRNA was isolated and described independently by James Watson's research team and a team of Jacob, Monod and Matthew Meselson.

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Part a :put the paramecium or protist slide on the base of your compound microscope.

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Paramecium is a genus of eukaryotic unicellular ciliates and is widely studied as a representative of the ciliate group. Paramecium is widely distributed in freshwater, brackish and marine territories and is expected in sedentary aquariums and ponds. Some species are widely used in classrooms and laboratories to explore biological processes because they are easy to culture and easily induce binding and division. Its usefulness as a model organism has led some ciliate investigators to characterize it as a "white rat" in the phylum Ciliate.

What is compound microscope?Paramecium size range from 50 to 330 microns (0.0020 to 0.0130 inches). The cells are usually oval, rectangular, foot or cigar-shaped.The body of a cell is surrounded by a rigid but flexible structure called a membrane. It consists of an outer cell membrane (protoplasmic membrane), a layer of flat membrane-bound sac called the alveoli, and an intima called epiplasma. The cuticle is not soft, but consists of hexagonal or rectangular indentations. Each of these polygons is perforated by a central opening with a single cilia protruding. Between the alveolar sac of the cuticle, most Paramecium species have a dense spindle-shaped trichocyst, an explosive organelle that secretes thin, non-toxic filaments often used for defensive objectives.

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Determine if the following statement is true or false and why. “Primary and Secondary Consumers lose about 30% of the energy they absorb from food as heat.” A. True B. False, it should read “Primary Consumers lose about 5% of the energy they absorb from food as heat, while Secondary Consumers lose 30% as heat.” C. False, it should read “Only Secondary Consumers lose about 30% of the energy they absorb from food as heat.” D. False, it should read “Primary and Secondary Consumers lose about 5% of the energy they absorb from food as heat.”

Answers

The following statement is False. There is a constant flow of energy takes place from plants to plant eating animals to flash eating animals in the form of food and 90% of energy is lost as heat .

Hence, Option B is correct.

What is 10 % Law ?

Lindemann in 1942 proposed the 10% law of energy flow in ecosystem. According to 10% law if the net primary productivity is taken to be 100% in producers ( first trophic level ) then only 10% of potential energy of plant material is actually assimilated by herbivores as food  .during this act  by herbivores 90% of energy is lost as heat (thermal heat ) to the environment .

Similarly only 1% of the potential energy of primary consumers is assimilated by carnivores ( secondary consumers ) and the rest 90% of energy of carnivores  is lost as heat to the environment . Thus, during energy flow in ecosystem the energy fixed in one level is only 10% of its previous level and 90% of energy is lost as heat in each trophic level.

Thus it it concluded that there is a constant flow of energy takes place from plants to plant eating animals to flash eating animals in the form of food and 90% of energy is lost as heat .

Hence, Option B is correct.

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In which part of the body is a ball-and-socket joint found? joint a: wrist joint b: elbow joint c: hip joint d: knee

Answers

Answer: joint c: hip joint

Explanation:

the hip joint is categorized as a ball and socket joint that allows for the body to sustain it weight and allows for large freedom of motionThe socket, also known as the acetabulum is found in the pelvisThe ball part of the joint is found at the top of the thighbone (femur) and connects with the socket to form the hip joint

In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is the fetal connection between the pulmonary trunk and which structure(s)?

Answers

In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is the fetal connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta.

The ductus arteriosus is a normal blood vessel that forms a connection between two main arteries i.e. the aorta and the pulmonary artery which carries blood away from the heart. The lungs are not active while a fetus is in the womb as the baby receives oxygen directly from the mother's placenta.

The fetal lungs are filled with amniotic fluid hence, they cannot be used to oxygenate the blood. Also, the arterioles in the lungs are constricted, which limits the amount of blood that can pass through the pulmonary system.

As the fetal blood leaving the placenta is already rich in oxygen and the lungs are non-functional, thereby, the ductus arteriosus permits a part of this blood to detour the pulmonary circulation to enter directly into the systemic circulation.

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Suppose a country’s population is aging and the size of the workforce is declining. in the long run, output will ________ and the price level will ________.

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In the long run, the output will reduce and the price level will increase because there is a low size of the workforce.

How are output and price levels affected?

We know that production or output is dependent on the workforce. If a country has large workforce, then the production of the country is higher which make the economy better which results in the lower price of products while on the other hand, if a country has low workforce, then the output of the country is also lower that make the economy worse which results in the higher price of products and inflation.

So we can conclude that in the long run, the output will reduce and the price level will increase because there is a low size of the workforce.

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Squamous cell carcinoma. A/an _____ also called a solar keratosis, is precancerous skin growth that occurs on sun-damaged skin. It often looks like a red, tan or pink scaly patch and feels like sandpaper.

Answers

Actinic keratosis, also called solar keratosis, is a precancerous skin growth that occurs on sun-damaged skin.

What is skin cancer?

Skin cancer is a type of disease caused by the uncontrolled growth of skin cells (i.e., keratinocytes that form the layer of the skin).

A precancerous condition is any type of environmental factor capable of altering the normal functioning of cells and eventually leading to cancer.

Actinic keratosis is a condition caused by excessively dry conditions in the skin as a consequence of a prolonged exposition to solar radiation, which may derive from serious conditions (e.g., skin cancer)

In conclusion, actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin growth that occurs on sun-damaged skin.

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Under conditions when there is very intense competition between memebers of the same species the distribution of individuals will tend to be:____.

Answers

As the intense competition of the species are observed in clumped distribution, so the answer is distribution of individuals will tend to be clumped.

What is intraspecies competition?

The competition which  occurs between individuals of the same species  based on common need for a limited resources,  leading to a reduction in the survival and reproduction rate.

Intraspecific competition for exploitation which is an indirect type  observed when an individual consumes the available resources.

Intraspecific competition by interference observed when the individuals fight to access for other's food.

Hence, answer is clumped.

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Which of the following is a NATURAL
(NOT human-made)
greenhouse gases?
source of
A. burning fossil fuels in power plants
B. human agricultural practices
C. volcanic eruptions
D. anthropogenic (human-caused) deforestation

Answers

Answer:

Burning fossil fuels in power plants

Explanation:

Hope it helps

pls mark brainliest answer

Answer:

c

Explanation:

because volcanoes happen naturally humans and they release greenhouse gases in the atmosphere such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen :)

hope this helped !

When observing the gel at the end of the run period, the dna band that is closest to the positive electrode is the.

Answers

The answer is smallet is size.

What is electrode?Electrode, electric conductor, usually metal, operated as either of the two terminals of an electrically operating medium; it conducts current into and out of the medium, which may be an electrolytic resolution as in a storage battery, or a solid, gas, or vacuum.The main use of electrodes is to generate electrical current and pass it through non-metal objects to essentially alter them in several ways. Electrodes are also used to calculate conductivity.The electrode is the location where electron transfer happens. An electrode is classified as either a cathode or an anode counting on the type of chemical response that happens. If an oxidation reaction happens at an electrode.

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Where efferent motor neurons of the somatic nervous system communicate with their effector organs is called a:______.

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Where efferent motor neurons of the somatic nervous system communicate with their effector organs is called a neuromuscular junction.

The nerve fibers that transmit information from the brain to the peripheral nervous system in order to start an action are known as efferent neurons, also referred to as motor neurons. To put it another way, these are the neurons that instruct your body to carry out a task, like removing your hand from a hot skillet. Both skeletal and smooth muscle is controlled by motor neurons' efferent nerve fibers.

The terminal end of a motor nerve and a muscle (skeletal, smooth, or cardiac) form the neuromuscular junction (NMJ), which is a synaptic connection. It is the location where the action potential is sent from the nerve to the muscle. It is also a location for a variety of illnesses and a site of action for a variety of pharmaceuticals. The presynaptic terminal (also known as the efferent neuron), the synaptic cleft, and the postsynaptic membrane make up the architecture of a neuromuscular junction (i.e. the membrane of the muscle cell).

Each muscle fiber has one neuromuscular junction, which is normally found close to the middle of the fiber. As a result, the motor end plate will also be situated close to the muscle fiber's middle.

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Which of the following structures would carry out respiration.
a. germinating cowpea
b. decolorized leaf
c. boiled cowpea
d. dry leaf​

Answers

The answer to this solution is c

Answer:

a. germination cowpea

Explanation:

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If a dna sequence is aggtccg in the 5’ to 3’ direction on the parent (template) strand, then the new daughter strand replicated from it should be _____ in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

Answers

If a dna sequence is aggtccg in the 5’ to 3’ direction on the parent (template) strand, then the new daughter strand replicated from it should be TCCAGGC in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

What is DNA sequence?The procedure of DNA sequencing involves figuring out the nucleic acid sequence. The DNA's nucleotide sequence. The four bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine are arranged in this way using any technique or technology.Knowing the placement of the four chemical "bases," or building components, that make up the DNA molecule is known as sequencing DNA. The sequence reveals to researchers the type of genetic data that is stored in a certain DNA segment.Numerous genetic details can be gleaned from the DNA sequence, including genes that code for proteins, regulatory instructions that can turn genes on or off, and disease-causing mutations.Finding the precise nucleotide order of a given DNA molecule is the process of sequencing.

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Shiga toxin kills cells by preventing protein synthesis.

a. true
b. false

Answers

The answer is false

At the end of meiosis i, there are two haploid cells, each with two sister chromatids per chromosome. True or false?.

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

True.

At the end of meiosis I, there are two haploid cells.

What is the process of meiosis I?

Meiosis I refers to the initial nuclear division that takes place when gametes are formed. Due to the fact that the resulting cells have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell, it is also referred to as the reduction division. Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, and Telophase I are the four phases that make up Meiosis I.

Prophase I:

The chromosomes condense during prophase I and become apparent inside the nucleus. Following this chromosomal condensation, each chromosome pair's members align adjacent to one another and are referred to as homologous chromosomes because of their identical size and gene content.

At this stage, a mechanism known as synaptic attachment occurs between the two chromosomes in each pair along their lengths. Then, while the homologous chromosomes are tightly coupled, the individuals within each pair cross over, also known as recombination, to exchange neighboring pieces of DNA. The nuclear membrane eventually starts to deteriorate after the conclusion of prophase I.

Metaphase I:

Microtubules leave the spindle at the beginning of metaphase I and join the kinetochore close to the centromere of each chromosome. In specifically, microtubules from one spindle side bind to one chromosome while those from the other spindle side adhere to the other chromosome in each homologous pair. The chromosomal pairs subsequently align themselves along the equator of the cell, forming the metaphase plate, with the assistance of these microtubules.

Anaphase I:

The homologous chromosomes are separated during anaphase I by the disintegration and contraction of the microtubules, which causes the two chromosomes in each pair to be drawn toward the opposite ends of the cell. Because of this division, each daughter cell that emerges from meiosis I will have half as many chromosomes following interphase as the original parent cell. Additionally, each chromosome's sister chromatid still has a connection.

Telophase I:

In telophase I, the cytoplasm organizes and separates into two as the new chromosomes approach the spindle. Now there are two cells, and each one has half as many chromosomes as its parent cell did. The recombination that took place during prophase I also caused the two daughter cells to not be genetically identical to one another.

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Before tbp is loaded, which taf blocks the dna binding cleft of tbp and the n-terminal stirrup?

Answers

TAND-1 and TAND-2 of TAF-1 blocks the DNA binding cleft of TPB and the n-terminal stirrup.

Explain function of TAF(I).Part of a protein known as transcription factor IID can be made using instructions from the TAF1 gene (TFIID). The body's cells and tissues all have this protein, which connects to and binds to DNA there. The majority of genes' activity is controlled by transcription factor IID.A preinitiation complex made up of a number of initiation components must be assembled before RNA polymerase II can begin transcription of a gene from its core promoter region. It is believed that the TFIID transcription factor complex, which is made up of the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and TBP-associated factors (TAF(II)s), binds to the various promoters in a sequence-specific manner to initiate the assembly of this complex. Here, we identify and characterize a novel multiprotein complex made up of a number of TAF(II)s and other proteins but lacking either TBP or a TBP-like factor. In in vitro transcription experiments, this complex can take the place of TFIID on both TATA-containing and TATA-lacking promoters.

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Calcitonin _________ osteoclast activity, which will _________ blood calcium levels.

Answers

Calcitonin suppress osteoclast activity, which will lowers blood calcium levels.

What is Calcitonin?Calcitonin is a hormone secreted by thyroid gland.Calcitonin reduces the concentration of blood calcium level when it is above normal level.This polypetide hormone is made up of 32 amino acid and is mainly produced by C cells of the thyroid gland.In fish, birds and other non-mammalian animals, Calcitonin is produced by cells of the ultimobranchial body.

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Answer: Calcitonin inhibits osteoclast activity, which will decrease blood calcium levels.

Explanation: I have same question on my review. Calcitonin decreases blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity.

Blue jays and crows eat caterpillars and mice. if the number of blue jays increases, what are the two likely effects on other populations?

Answers

If the number of blue jays increases, the two likely effects on other populations are both the number of mice and the number of caterpillars will decrease.

What are two likely effects on other populations due to the increment in Blue jays population?An organism that preys on other species in order to consume them as food is referred to as a predator. Prey is a term used to describe an organism that a predator kills. An ecosystem's ability to balance an expanding prey population depends on the interaction between predators and their prey.Blue jays and crows both rely on mice and caterpillars as food sources, as indicated by the current circumstance. Mice, caterpillars, and blue jays are the prey, while crows and crows are the predators. The two prey populations will decline if the number of blue jays rises.

Hence, both the number of mice and the number of caterpillars will likely drop as the number of blue jays rises, having two possible implications on other populations.

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What tests would you order to test the diagnostic hypothesis that betsy's symptoms are caused by abnormal bleeding due to a bleeding disorder?

Answers

These betsy's symptoms are caused by abnormal bleeding due to a bleeding disorder-

Complete blood count (CBC) with platelets, red blood cell indices, and a smearReticulocyte countProthrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)Platelet function test (which has largely replaced the bleeding time in most centers)Factor VIII activityvon Willebrand factor antigenvon Willebrand factor activity (also known as Ristocetin cofactor)

What is abnormal bleeding called?

Abnormally heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding is also called 'abnormal uterine bleeding'. We sometimes use this general term to describe bleeding that does not follow a normal pattern, such as spotting between periods. It used to be referred to as menorrhagia, but this term is no longer used medically.

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Among the tasks in coping with life-threatening illness described by kenneth doka, which phase is characterized by "living with the disease"?

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Among the tasks in coping with life-threatening illness described by Kenneth Doka, the chronic phase is characterized by "living with the disease".

Kenneth Doka (1995–96) divides the process of dying into three phases, namely the acute, the chronic, and the terminal phases of dying, during which the individual initially is given the diagnosis, then lives with the disease and ultimately surrenders to death.

This phase can be quite long and the supporters may become comfortable in their caregiving role and adjust to the notion of death. This is an important adaptation since a great deal of the care for the terminally ill is given by the family members.

Doka (1998) notes that this phase "is often a period of continued stress, punctuated by points of crisis".

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At the end of meiosis i, there are two haploid cells, each with two sister chromatids per chromosome. True or false?.

Answers

The answer is true. There are two haploid cells with two sister chromatids per chromosome at the conclusion of meiosis I.

After meiosis I, a chromosome's two chromatids are genetically separate. After homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I, two haploid cells are produced.

what is meiosis phases ?

DNA is copied prior to meiosis, just as it is during mitosis. Then, during meiosis, two cell divisions—meiosis I and meiosis II—take place. The DNA is divided into daughter cells during the first division, which is composed of several steps. The two alleles of each gene are divided into distinct cells in the division that immediately follows the initial division. each gene has 4 copies, each of which is present in 2 complete sets of DNA with 2 alleles in each set. 

what are the Phases of Meiosis I ?

1. Prophase I

Condensed chromosomes adhere to the nuclear membrane.

A tetrad is created when synapsis takes place (when a pair of homologous chromosomes line up closely together). Four chromatids make up each tetrad. By crossing over, genetic recombination might take place. The nuclear membrane thins as the chromosomes separate from it. The nuclear envelope and nucleoli disintegrate, and the centrioles move apart similarly to mitosis. The chromosomes also start moving toward the metaphase plate.

2. Metaphase I

At the metaphase plate, tetrads align.

As you can see, homologous chromosome centromeres are oriented toward the opposing cell poles.

3. Anaphase I

The movement of chromosomes to opposing cell poles. Similar to mitosis, the chromosomes are drawn to the cell poles by the interaction of microtubules like the kinetochore fibers.

Unlike mitosis, sister chromatids do not split once homologous chromosomes move to opposing poles.

4. Telophase I

The homologous chromosomes are still being moved to the poles by the spindle fibers.

Once movement is complete, each pole contains a haploid number of chromosomes.

Most of the time, cytokinesis—the division of the cytoplasm—occurs concurrently with telophase I.

At the end of telophase I and cytokinesis, two daughter cells are produced, each of which has half as many chromosomes as the original parent cell.

Different activities take place in anticipation of meiosis II depending on the kind of cell. There is one thing that never changes, though: the genetic material never reproduces.

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True

At the end of meiosis i, there are two haploid cells, each with two sister chromatids per chromosome.

What are happens in meiosis i?When gametes are created, the first nuclear division, known as meiosis I, occurs. It is also known as the reduction division because the resultant cells have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell. The four phases of Meiosis I are Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, and Telophase I.

Prophase 1:During prophase I, the chromosomes condense and become visible inside the nucleus. Each chromosome pair's members fit next to one another after this chromosomal condensation, and because of their similar size and gene content, they are known as homologous chromosomes.At this stage, a process known as synaptic attachment takes place between each pair of chromosomes along its length. The people within each pair then cross across, commonly known as recombination, to swap nearby fragments of DNA while the homologous chromosomes are firmly connected. After prophase I, the nuclear membrane gradually begins to degrade.

Metaphase 1At the start of metaphase I, microtubules depart from the spindle and join the kinetochore near each chromosome's centromere. More specifically, in each homologous pair, microtubules from one spindle side bind to one chromosome while those from the other spindle side do the same for the other chromosome. These microtubules then help the chromosomal pairs arrange themselves to form the metaphase plate, which is located along the equator of the cell.

Anaphase 1The dissolution and contraction of the microtubules, which cause the two chromosomes in each pair to be dragged toward the opposite ends of the cell, separate the homologous chromosomes during anaphase I. Each daughter cell that emerges from meiosis I will have half as many chromosomes as the original parent cell after interphase as a result of this division. The sister chromatids of each chromosome are still linked.

Telophase 1:As the new chromosomes get closer to the spindle, the cytoplasm organizes and divides into two during telophase I. The two remaining cells each contain half as many chromosomes as their progenitor cell did. The two daughter cells were not genetically similar to each other due to the recombination that occurred during prophase I.

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Different nutrients become incorporated into the cell. What becomes part of the cell membrane?

A. Fats and Carbohydrates

B. Amino Acids and Carbohydrates

C. Proteins and Fats

D. Proteins and Water

abc or d with a simple explanation

Answers

Answer: B

Explanation:

The parts that are part of the cell membrane are Proteins and Fats. The correct option is C.

What is a cell membrane?

The cell membrane is the outer covering of the cell that separates the internal cell from the outer environment. A semipermeable lipid bilayer makes up the cell membrane. The movement of materials into and out of the cell is controlled by the cell membrane.

The cell membrane is made up of two components, they are proteins and fats. Fats have hydrophobic ends that do not dissolve in water, and they give strength to the membrane.

Protein is of two types that are present in the cell membrane. They are integral membrane protein, which is present permanently, and peripheral membrane protein, which is present at some point in the membrane.

Thus, the correct option is C. Proteins and Fats.

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