Homology represents the existence of shared ancestry between a pair of structures or genes in different species.
Homology basically shows the similarity which can exist between two different species. The structures which come from a common ancestor but serve completely different functions in different species are known as the homologous structures.
A very common example of homologous structure is arms of primates, the forelimbs of the vertebrates, wings or birds, flippers of whale and the forelegs of dogs. These modifications in these structures is due to adaptations for different purposes. Homologous genes are the ones which have been inherited by two different species but from a common ancestor.
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Urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the external environment by the?
The tube that carries urine from urinary bladder to the outside environment by urethra.
What is the chemical composition of urine?Urine is a fluid released from the kidney to remove waste products of the bloodstream.
Human urine is yellowish in color as various chemical components are present.
The primary components are water which is 91% - 96%, urea, creatinine, uric acid, enzymes, carbohydrates, hormones, fatty acids, pigments, and mucins, and other inorganic ions
The pH ranges from 5.5 to 7 and specific gravity ranges from 1.003 to 1.035.
Hence, urethra is the correct answer
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The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. c5b c5a c3b c1 factor b
The correct answer is c3b.
The intrinsic C3 thioester bond of the alternative pathway (AP) is progressively hydrolyzed spontaneously by diverse proteins, lipids, and carbohydrate structures on microbes and other external surfaces [12–14], and this further activates the AP [1, 15]. A blue line pointing to C3 denotes the fluid-phase C3b promoting assembly of AP C3 convertase as the proposed mechanism for the reaction of properdin with a target on the foreign surface [27]. Thick red lines signify amplification mechanisms: Factor H regulates and inhibits the tick-over reaction, a gradual spontaneous activation involving C3(H2O) reacting with factor B. Properdin also promotes self-amplification in the other loop by stabilizing the C3bBb complex.
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Detective controls strengthen the system against incidents by reducing or eliminating certain vulnerabilities.
a. true
b. false
True. Detective controls strengthen the system against incidents by reducing or eliminating certain vulnerabilities.
What about detective control?Detective controls are intended to identify mistakes or issues after the transaction has taken place. Detective controls are crucial because they give proof that preventative controls are working as planned and give an opportunity to find abnormalities after the fact.A detective control is made to find issues after they have already happened. After an issue is identified, management can take action to reduce the likelihood that it will happen again in the future, typically by changing the underlying process.Designed to identify mistakes and anomalies that have already happened and to ensure that they are corrected as soon as possible. These safeguards are frequently expensive but essential operating expenses.Audits, performance evaluations, and reconciliations. Preventive and investigative efforts are the two main categories of control.Learn more about detective control here:
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Atoms in triglycerides could be used in the synthesis of dna. which metabolic intermediate and pathway will function as crossover points between triglycerides and dna?
Atoms in triglycerides could be used in the synthesis of DNA. Acetyl-CoA is the metabolic intermediate involved in Citric acid cycle pathway which functions as crossover points between triglycerides and DNA.
The Citric acid cycle also known as Krebs cycle or TCA cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle) involves a series of enzyme-catalyzed reactions which occur in the mitochondrial matrix. In this pathway, acetyl-CoA is oxidized to form carbon dioxide and the coenzymes are reduced, which generate ATP in the electron transport chain.
Acetyl-CoA (acetyl coenzyme A) takes part in many biochemical reactions linked with protein, carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. Its main role is to deliver the acetyl group to the Citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) to be oxidized for energy production.
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Research in neuroeconomics has linked activity in the _____ with a reflexive decision system and activity in the _____ with reflective decision system
Research in neuroeconomics has linked activity in the nucleus accumbens and ventromedial prefrontal cortex with a reflexive decision system and activity in the medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex with reflective decision system.
The nucleus accumbens is considered as the neural interface between motivation and action, playing a key role on feeding, sexual, reward, stress-related, drug self-administration behaviors, etc. The nucleus accumbens is made up of an 'electrophysiological coincidence detector' or shell serially connected to a 'motor sequencer' or core, both supporting the role of the nucleus accumbens as a limbic-motor interface.
The ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) is a part of the prefrontal cortex in the mammalian brain. It is an integrative hub for emotional, sensory, social, memory, and self-related information processing. Situated in the medial portion of the prefrontal cortex, the highly interconnected vmPFC serves as a region for binding together the large-scale networks that subserve emotional processing, decision-making, memory, self-perception, and social cognition in general.
The medial temporal lobe includes a system of anatomically related structures that are essential for declarative memory (conscious memory for facts and events). The system consists of the hippocampal region (CA fields, dentate gyrus, and subicular complex) and the adjacent perirhinal, entorhinal, and parahippocampal cortices.
The lateral prefrontal cortex is the cortex of the convexity of the frontal lobe rostral to motor and premotor cortices. Any sizable lesion of that cortex leads to some degree of apathy, a generalized loss of interest and attention on anything coming through the senses or in the mind of the patient.
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The incomplete oxidation of glucose or other carbohydrates without the use of oxygen is a process referred to as?
Fermentation is the process in which incomplete oxidation of glucose or other carbohydrate without the use of oxygen takes place.
What is fermentation?The chemical process in which molecules such as glucose are broken down without oxygen or in anaerobic condition.
Incomplete oxidation of glucose in the process of fermentation takes place under anaerobic condition as there is no use of oxygen.
During the process of fermentation pyruvic acid is formed and two molecules of ATP are synthesized.
Therefore,fermentation is the process in which incomplete oxidation of glucose or other carbohydrate without use of oxygen takes place.
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The middle ear communicates with the:_______
a) nasopharynx through the auditory meatus.
b) pharyngotympanic tube auricle.
c) bony labyrinth.
d) membranous labyrinth
The middle ear communicates with the: nasopharynx through the auditory meatus.
Since it creates the most pronounced anatomic opening between the two compartments in both animals and humans, it has long been considered that the round window membrane serves as the main pathway of communication between the middle ear and perilymph.The middle ear interacts with the pharynx, adjusts to changes in pressure outside, and transfers vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.The small passageway, also known as the auditory tube or eustachian tube, that runs from the middle ear to the nasopharynx. Pressure is equalized on both sides of the tympanic membrane via the tube (eardrum). The inner ear membrane in the fenestra ovalis receives sound waves from the incus through the stapes.learn more about middle ear here: https://brainly.com/question/2861613
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How does your calculated value compare to your measured cell potential for cell 6?
Formula for the Overall Cell Potential is ; E0cell=E0red−E0oxid
E0cell = Measured cell potential
E0red = Sum of the reduction potential ( cathode )
E0oxid = Oxidation potential ( anode )
Calculated value of cell potential can differ from the Measured Cell potential because of the cell impurities, value differences during the calibration of voltage or concentration.
Measured potential of a cell is normally less than the ideal or nominal volts. This is because of the voltage which is specified for the ideal conditions for a new unused cell. The conditions mention temperature, atmospheric pressure, presume sound unaffected condition of electrode plates as also pure electrolytes etc.
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Which structure(s) coordinates daily cycles of activity that are linked to the day-night cycle??
A structure that coordinates daily cycles of activity that are linked to the day-night cycle is suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).
The anterior region of the hypothalamus has a bilateral structure called the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN). It controls the majority of the body's circadian rhythms and serves as the circadian timing system's main pacemaker.
The SCN gets suggestions from Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs) project through the retino-thalamic tract to neurons in the SCN via glutamatergic synapses, providing the photic input. The circadian clock is synchronised as a result.
Therefore, A structure that coordinates daily cycles of activity that are linked to the day-night cycle is suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).
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During dna replication, the enzyme dna polymerase adds new nucleotides to the ______ end of the sugar in the growing strand
During dna replication, the enzyme dna polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3' end of the sugar in the growing strand
What activated carriers, and how many of each, are produced during the citric acid cycle?
NADH, GTP, FADH2 are the activated carriers which are produced during the citric acid cycle.
What are activated carriers?A small molecule that has a chemical group attached to it through a high-energy linkage and can donate energy or the chemical group in a variety of chemical processes.
How these activated carriers are produced in Kreb's cycle?The inner mitochondrial membrane's electron-transport chain receives high-energy electron contributions from NADH and FADH2. The activated nucleoside triphosphate GTP, which is closely similar to ATP, is also produced by the citric acid cycle.Electrons from the combustion of carbs, lipids, and other nutrients during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle are used to power the flow of ATP production. These "high-energy" electrons are produced by activated carriers produced during these two types of catabolic events, with the citric acid cycle operating in the mitochondrial matrix producing the majority of these activated carriers. The oxidation of molecules taken from food is finished by the citric acid cycle. The activated carriers NADH and FADH2 store some of the energy produced by this oxidation in the form of high-energy electrons. The inner mitochondrial membrane's electron-transport chain can then receive electrons from these two activated carriers.Learn more about activated carriers here:
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Question mode multiple choice question what type of cells does the ground meristem make?
Answer:
Parenchyma Cells, I believe
Cody and zach are twins who are genetically identical. What type of twins are they?
The twins Cody and Zach share the same genetic makeup. They are monozygotic twins.
How twins are formed?
Twins are two children born from a single pregnancy. Twins may be monozygotic (also known as "identical"), in which case they originate from a single zygote that divides into two eggs, or dizygotic (also known as "separate"), in which case each twin originates from a distinct egg that is fertilized by a different sperm cell.
Identical or monozygotic twins share the same sex since they are created from a single zygote, whereas fraternal twins might or might not. Rarely, twins may have separate dads and the same mother.In contrast, a singleton is a general word for one child of multiple births, while a multiple is used to refer to a fetus that grows alone in the womb, which is the much more usual scenario in humans. Doppelgängers are unrelated lookalikes who resemble twins in both physical and behavioral ways.Learn more about monozygotic twins here:
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The arrangement of homeotic genes along chromosomes of vertebrate and invertebrate animals corresponds to the expression pattern of the genes along the?
The arrangement of homeotic genes along chromosomes of vertebrate and invertebrate animals corresponds to the expression pattern of the genes along the anterior-posterior axis of the developing embryo.
What are homeotic genes?Homeotic genes are a group of body pattern forming genes which control the development along the anterior- posterior axis of the developing embryo.These encode transcription factors which control and specify the genes involved in body patterning. These provide identity to the segments during embryo formation.Genes located in the 5’ end act on posterior side whereas the genes on 3’ end act on anterior region.Homeotic genes are evolutionary conserved and control body specification, patterning and differentiation.The loss of function of any of the gene changes the body pattern and affects the development.Learn more about homeotic genes here:
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Which gland in the endocrine system primarily controls the body's response to a stressful situation? pituitary adrenal thyroid pineal
Answer: There are 2 correct answers for this question: adrenal and pituitary. However, I believe the answer you're looking for is the adrenal gland since it is more directly involved in the production of epinephrine.
Answer:
adrenal
explanation: got it right on edge
What are the major sources of energy utilized during a 100 meter race, a 1000 meter race, and a marathon? How do runners transition from one energy source to another during the course of a marathon?
Glucose is the major sources of energy which utilized during the 100 m race , 1000 m race . Glucose is formed from the breakdown of carbohydrate and stored as a glycogen in muscles and liver.
Carbohydrates and fat are the primary sources of energy with protein contributing a minimal amount under normal conditions.ATP is body's usable from of energy. Body uses three type of different system of metabolism to transfer stored energy to form ATP.
Runner wants to sustain high intensity energy for marathon , must obtain sufficient glycogen stores. High carbohydrate foods are good for runner so that they quickly get energy.
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URGENT! What results would you expect to see if exercise does not increase bone mass?
When exercise does not increase bone mass, it has been observed that the risk of bone fractures increases due to osteoporosis.
What are the benefits of exercise to bone mass and density?
Bone mass refers to the mass of the bones in a living organism as a result of the deposition of minerals within the bone.
An increase in bone mass is directly related to the strength of the bone.
Strong bones have high bone masses whereas weak bone have low bone mass.
Physical activity have been shown to improve bone mass by increase the mass of deposited minerals in the bone.
Exercise such as walking, running, jogging, and other forms of exercise have been shown to improve bone mass and hence, the strength of bones.
However, when exercise does not increase bone mass, osteoporosis is observed which results in bone fracture.
In conclusion, the strength of a bone is directly related to the bone mass which is directly related to the mass of minerals deposited within them.
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Old dirty csf is dumped into the large vein (superior sagittal sinus) through which structure?
Old dirty CSF is dumped into the large vein (superior sagittal sinus) through the arachnoid villus.
Small protrusions of the arachnoid barrier layer into the venous sinus and its principal tributaries are known as arachnoid villi or granulations. They are generally acknowledged to be the cause of human meningiomas and are intimately associated with the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid. Arachnoid villi, which are structures, are used in the superior sagittal sinus to absorb CSF into the bloodstream.
The bulk of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is created by the choroid plexus, travels through the ventricles, cisterns, and subarachnoid space, and then is absorbed into the blood by the arachnoid villi, according to the conventional concept of CSF physiology.
Arachnoid granulations or villi are arachnoid membrane growths in the dural sinuses, where the CSF exits the subarachnoid space and enters the venous system. Arachnoid granulations, which are visible to the unaided eye and indicate enlarged arachnoid villi, are minute.
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Which event is not a likely outcome of glucagon binding to its receptor? increase in:
An increase in GDP binding to the Gα subunit of the G protein is NOT a likely outcome of glucagon binding to its receptor. the correct answer is option(a).
Glucagon causes conformational changes in its receptor, which is mostly found in the liver and kidney when it attaches to it. This results in the activation of heterotrimeric G proteins, particularly the Gs alpha subunit, which then begins signaling the activation of adenylyl cyclase enzymes.
Adenylate cyclase is activated by the Gs protein, which then catalyzes the conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), thereby raising intracellular cAMP levels. The glucagon signaling pathway is started by binding to specific receptors on the target cell membrane.
In addition to controlling the metabolism of carbohydrates, insulin and glucagon also have a number of physiologic functions. The binding of each hormone to receptors on the target cells starts the physiological effects of insulin and glucagon on the cell.
Therefore, the correct answer is option(a) because adenylate cyclase and protein kinase A activities as well as the level of cAMP are all enhanced once glucagon binds to its receptor and activates its associated G protein. In contrast, G protein activation encourages bound GDP dissociation and its exchange for GTP on the subunit.
The complete question is:
Which event is NOT a likely outcome of glucagon binding to its receptor? Increase in:
GDP binding to Gα subunit of the G protein
adenylate cyclase activity
protein kinase A activity
cAMP generation
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Although glycolysis produces four molecules of atp by substrate-level phosphorylation, the net gain of atp for the cell is two molecules. This is because?
Although glycolysis produces four molecules of atp by substrate-level phosphorylation, the net gain of atp for the cell is two molecules. This is because glycolysis is at first endergonic.
What is glycolysis?The metabolic process that turns glucose into pyruvic acid is known as glycolysis. The high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate and reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are created using the free energy released during this process. A series of ten enzyme-catalyzed processes make up glycolysis.The process by which glucose is broken down to provide energy is known as glycolysis. It generates two pyruvate molecules, ATP, NADH, and water. There is no need for oxygen throughout the process, which occurs in the cytoplasm of a cell. Both aerobic and anaerobic creatures experience it.The initial process in breaking down glucose to release energy for cellular metabolism is called glycolysis. An energy-consuming phase and an energy-releasing phase make up glycolysis.
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An axosomatic synapse occurs between the axon terminals of one neuron and the ________ of a proximal neuron.
The meselon-stahl experiment demonstrated that dna replication produces two dna molecules each composed of
The meselson-stahl experiment demonstrated that DNA replication produces two DNA molecules each composed of nitrogen isotopes.
Matthew Stanley Meselson and Franklin William Stahl in the US demonstrated semi-conservative DNA replication in the 1950s, showing that each daughter DNA molecule contains one new daughter subunit and one subunit conserved from the mother DNA molecule. This work was later named after them. Meselson and Stahl came to the conclusion that DNA molecules can reflect semi-conservatively based on their observations and experimental findings. The study of the semi-conservative character of DNA replication or the copying of cells did not end there.
The DNA replication process was examined in a 1958 experiment by Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl using the fast-dividing E. coli bacterium. By centrifuging nitrogen isotopes in calcium chloride, 15N (heavy) and 14N (normal) can be distinguished from one another based solely on their densities (CsCl).
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A point mutation that does not result in a change to the amino acid coded for is said to be a _______ mutation. a. spontaneous c. selective b. synonymous d. stabilizing
A point mutation that does not result in a change to the amino acid coded for is said to be a synonymous mutation.
What is synonymous mutation?
A synonymous mutation is a change in a protein's amino acid sequence that occurs in the DNA sequence that codes for that amino acid but does not affect the encoded amino acid. These alterations typically take place in the third position of a codon because of the genetic code's redundancy (several codons encode the same amino acid).
For instance, the codes for glycine are GGT, GGA, GGC, and GGG. The identical amino acid will be integrated into the protein sequence with any modification in the codon's third position (for example, A is replaced by G).
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Decomposition in pools, ponds, and lakes takes place mostly in the _______ zone. a. pelagic b. littoral c. benthic d. all of the above please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Answer:
C. Benthic
Explanation:
The benthic zone is the region at the lowest part of water ...
The whiplash often accompanying car accidents poses a special danger to the sacral spine.
a. true
b. false
The sacral spine is particularly at risk due to the whiplash that frequently follows vehicle accidents. The following claim is false.
Whiplash injury:
Injuries to the brainstem that do not directly affect the head or neck are also classified as whiplash injuries and are not just limited to neck injuries. The most frequent complaints related to whiplash injuries include cervical discomfort, headaches, and scapulodynia. Dizziness and vertigo are also noted in 27% -52% of the patients. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) is utilized in otoneurologic examinations to assess vertebrobasilar hemodynamics in patients who report dizziness and vertigo. According to reports, cervical manipulation causes cerebral and cerebellum ischemia and infarction due to vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency (VBI). Using MRA, doctors investigated the relationship between vertigo or dizziness and the difference between the vertebral arteries on the right and left sides following whiplash injury.Therefore the questioned statement is false.
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An important tool of genetic engineering is ________ dna, which is dna altered by the incorporation of genes from a different organism.
An important tool of genetic engineering is recombinant DNA, which is DNA altered by the incorporation of genes from a different organism.
The modification and manipulation of an organism's genes through technology are known as genetic engineering, often referred to as genetic modification or genetic manipulation. It is a collection of technologies used to alter cells' genetic make-up, including the movement of genes between and within species to create better or entirely new organisms.
Recombinant DNA techniques are used to isolate and copy the genetic material of interest, while artificial DNA synthesis is used to create new DNA. Paul Berg combined DNA from the lambda virus and the SV40 monkey virus in 1972 to create the first recombinant DNA molecule.
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Studies on identical twins have found that differences in genes explain ________ of the variability in personality traits.
Studies on identical twins have found that differences in genes explain 50% of the variability in personality traits.
According to twin studies on personality, genetic influences account for around half of personality variation, with environmental factors causing individuals from the same family to have different personalities accounting for the remaining half. However, these conclusions are supported by quantitative models of human individual differences that calculate genetic and environmental contributions as constants across entire populations.
According to genetic studies, there are 5.2 genetic mutations that separate identical twins on average. Although the same set of genes are used to create identical twins, human development is not entirely genetic. Another factor is the surroundings. The degree to which genetic variation contributes to variation in a specific characteristic can be ascertained by contrasting concordance rates of identical twins and concordance rates of fraternal twins.
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The choice of system used to transport nutrients is based primarily on whether the nutrients are:________
The choice of system used to transport nutrients is based primarily on whether the nutrients are: FAT OR WATER SOLUBLE.
Depending on how soluble they are, nutrients can be categorized. Most dissolve in water because they are water-soluble. The fat-soluble vitamins, on the other hand, behave like oil and do not dissolve in water.Because they are soluble in organic solvents and are absorbed and transported similarly to fats, vitamins A, D, E, and K are referred to as fat-soluble vitamins.The B vitamins — folate, thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, vitamin B6, and vitamin B12 — and vitamin C are the nine water-soluble vitamins. A clinical illness caused by a deficiency in one of these water-soluble vitamins has the potential to cause serious morbidity and mortality.learn more about nutrients here: https://brainly.com/question/8070307
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Both adult and embryonic stem cells have the potential to be used for medical treatment. Evaluate the potential use of adult and embryonic stem cells as medical treatments. You must contain a justified conclusion
Stem cells are the body's raw materials — cells from which all other cells with specialized functions are generated. Under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells called daughter cells.Research carried out with the use of these cells has demonstrated their effectiveness in the treatment of various diseases, such as leukemia, heart disease and hematological diseases. Embryonic stem cells, in turn, have the ability to form any tissue in the body.
How are embryonic stem cells used?Stem cells have the ability to differentiate and self-renew. For this reason, they can be used in the treatment of degenerative diseases. Stem cells stand out for their ability to transform into different cell types, that is, they are cells with a great capacity for differentiation.
What diseases could be treated with the use of Embryonic Stem Cells?Diseases that can be treated with stem cellsleukemias. Leukemia is a generic term used to describe the “cancer” of leukocytes, the white blood cells. Thalassemias. Neuroblastoma.Primary immunodeficiencies.Sideroblastic anemia. Metabolic diseases. Sickle cell anemia.With this information, we can conclude that Scientists are also working on ways to develop stem cells from other cells, using genetic “reprogramming” techniques.
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Both adult and embryonic stem cells have the potential to be used for medical treatment because adult stem cells are also found in a undifferentiated state.
What are embryonic stem cells?The embryonic stem cells are specific non-specialized cells found in the blastocyst (embryo state) which can be stimulated to generate virtually any tissue.
Moreover, adult stem cells are nonspecialized cells found after the postnatal period which can be stimulated to divide and produce any tissue (similarly to embryonic stem cells).
In conclusion, both adult and embryonic stem cells have the potential to be used for medical treatment because adult stem cells are also found in a undifferentiated state.
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Hormone released by the duodenum in response to acids and lipids in the duodenum.
Cholecystokinin is perspired by cells of the upper little intestine. Its secretion is stimulated by the introduction of hydrochloric acid, amino acids, or fatty acids into the stomach or duodenum.
What is Cholecystokinin?Cholecystokinin is a hormone produced in your little intestine. It recreates a fundamental role in digestive function. When fats and proteins enter your small intestine, cholecystokinin activates your gallbladder and pancreas to contract.The most recognized positions of this hormone are in digestion and appetite. It improves digestion by delaying the emptying of food from the stomach and promoting the production of bile in the liver as well as its departure from the gall bladder.CCK peptides stimulate pancreatic enzyme secretion and growth, gallbladder compaction, gut motility, and satiety, and deter acid secretion from the stomach. Moreover, they are major neurotransmitters in the brainiac and the periphery.To learn more Cholecystokinin, refer to:
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