help please it would make my day pleaes help me

Solving a system of equations, we can see that:

Let's define the variables:

With the given information, we can write:

P*8h = D

C*7h = D

C = 2*P - 144mi/h

So we have a system of 3 equations, where D is the distance in the problem.

With the first and second equations we can write:

P*8h = D = C*7h

Isolating P, we get:

P = C*(7/8)

Now we can replace that in the last equation:

C = 2*P - 144mi/h

C = 2*C*(7/8) - 144mi/h

And now we can solve that for C.

C - 2*(7/8)*C = - 144mi/h

C*(1 - 14/8) = -144mi/h

C*(8/8 - 14/8) = - 144mi/h

C*(6/8) = 144mi/h

C = (8/6)*144mi/h = 192mi/h

Now that we know the speed of the commercial jet, we can find the speed of the private jet.

P = C*(7/8) = 192mi/h*(7/8) = 168 mi/h

If you want to learn more about systems of equations:

https://brainly.com/question/13729904

#SPJ1

Answer: 1

Step-by-step explanation:  It's subtraction and add ion look at the right side

Answer: 3 loops

Step-by-step explanation: The loop is 1.2 miles, and the total walk is 3.6 miles. You want to find out how many laps are in the 3.6 miles. This can be found using division. 3.6/1.2= the number of 1.2 mile laps inside the 3.6 mile walk, which is 3 laps. hope this helped!

answer

is true statement w= 4

The odds in favor of them winning is 20%

From the information given, we have that the probability of them winning the next game is 80%

P( winning) = 80% = 0. 8

The odds against them winning is given as;

1 - probability of winning

We have;

= 1 - 0. 8

= 0. 2

The odds in favor of them winning is simply the probability of them losing;

= 0. 2 × 100

= 20%

Thus, the odds in favor of them winning is 20%

Learn more about probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/25870256

#SPJ1

The possible values of X for this game are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.......n, where n ≥ 1

From the complete question, we understand that Mr. A wants to plays the game until he wins

This means that

He might win at the first game and he might win after n attempts

So, the values of X are

X = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.......n

Hence, the possible values of X for this game are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.......n, where n ≥ 1

The probability of x is represented as:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n-x)

So, the probability that X = n is:

P(n) = nCn * p^n * (1 - p)^(n - n)

Evaluate the exponent

P(n) = nCn * p^n * 1

Evaluate the combination expression

P(n) = 1 * p^n * 1

This gives

P(n) = p^n

Hence, the probability that X = n is p^n

The distribution satisfies PMF conditions because

The expected value E(x) is calculated using

E(x) = n * p

So, we have:

E(x) = np

Hence, the value of E(x) is np

The variance V(x) is calculated using

V(x) = √n * p * (1 - p)

So, we have:

V(x) = √np(1 - p)

Hence, the value of V(x) is √np(1 - p)

The memoryless property of X is that each probability of X is independent

Read more about probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/25870256

#SPJ1

The most suitable measurements for a box with a square base are 5cm (width) x 5cm (length) x 640cm (height). This box would be worth $4875

To find the minimum value of a box that must have a square base and 16000 cm³, we must try different measurements to find the variable that represents the least value.

In this case, the variable that represents less value is a base of 5cm x 5cm and a height of 640cm. This means that the box would be worth $4875 as shown below.

Base

Sides

Additionally, we can check that the volume of the box is the required 16000cm³, as shown below:

Learn more about cubic centimeters in: https://brainly.com/question/9740005

#SPJ1

**Disclaimer** Hi there! I assumed the question is to represent W in terms of all other variables (P, L). The following answer corresponds to this understanding. If it is incorrect, please let me know and I will modify my answer.

Answer: W = (P/2) - L

Step-by-step explanation:

Given equation

P = 2L + 2W

Factorize 2 out

P = 2 (L + W)

Divide 2 on both sides

P / 2 = 2 (L + W) / 2

P / 2 = L + W

Subtract L on both sides

(P / 2) - L = L + W - L

[tex]\Large\boxed{W=\frac{P}{2} -L}[/tex]

Hope this helps!! :)

Please let me know if you have any questions

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle{W = \dfrac{P}{2} - L}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for W, we have to isolate the W-variable. First, we can factor the expression 2L + 2W to 2(L+W):

[tex]\displaystyle{P = 2(L+W)}[/tex]

Next, we'll be dividing both sides by 2:

[tex]\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} = \dfrac{2(L+W)}{2}}\\\\\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} = L+W}[/tex]

Then subtract both sides by L:

[tex]\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} - L= L+W-L}\\\\\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} - L= W}[/tex]

Therefore, we'll obtain W = P/2 - L.

Note that the given formula is perimeter formula of a rectangle where Perimeter = 2 * Length + 2 * Width.

So if we solve for W (Width) then we'll get Width = Perimeter / 2 - Length which can be useful to find width with given perimeter and length.

Check the picture below.

See attachment for the graph of the cosine function f(x) = 5 cos(π/2x) - 1

From the question, the given parameters are:

Amplitude, A = 5

Vertical shift, D = -1

Period, T = 4

A cosine function is represented as:

f(x) = A cos(B(x + C)) + D

Where

Amplitude = A

Period = T

Horizontal shift = C

Vertical shift = D

Since the horizontal shift is not stated in the question, we can assume that the horizontal shift is 0

i.e. C = 0

So, the equation of the cosine function becomes

f(x) = A cos(Bx) + D

Calculate the value of B using

B = 2π/T

So, we have:

B = 2π/4

Evaluate

B = π/2

So, we have:

f(x) = A cos(π/2x) + D

Substitute the known values of A and D in the above equation

f(x) = 5 cos(π/2x) - 1

Next, we plot the graph of the cosine function on a graphing tool

See attachment for the graph of the cosine function f(x) = 5 cos(π/2x) - 1

Read more about cosine function at

https://brainly.com/question/17075439

#SPJ1

Answer:20.00

Step-by-step explanation: next time include the table but i managed to find it anyway

[tex]y = 5x \\ switch \: y \: and \: x \\ x = 5y \\ solve \: for \:y \\ y = \frac{x}{5} [/tex]

Hi :)

I'd start by adding 5 to both sides of the equation. That would make the equation easier.

[tex]\boldsymbol{\sqrt{2x}-5=3}}[/tex]

[tex]\boldsymbol{\sqrt{2x}=2}[/tex]

The next step is to get rid of the radical sign.

Which operation will undo the square root? Squaring.

So that's why we square both sides:

[tex]\boldsymbol{2x=4}[/tex]

And Now we just divide both sides by 2

[tex]\boldsymbol{x=2}[/tex]

~[tex]\textit{\textbf{Learn More; Work Harder}}[/tex]~

:)

Answer: [tex]\frac{10\pi}{3}[/tex] m

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](2)(\pi)(4) \left(\frac{150}{360} \right)=\frac{10\pi}{3}[/tex]

Answer:

x+(x+5)=28

Step-by-step explanation:

girls(g)should be equal to x

boys(b) will therefore be x+5

x+(x+5)=28

Answer:

yes dear u need not to pay before viewing answer

You should at least answer 1 question to view the answers.

Answer:

We call the denominator rational.

Step-by-step explanation:

For example:

[tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{\sqrt2}{\sqrt2 \cdot \sqrt2} = \frac{\sqrt2}{2}[/tex]

It's clear that the denominator is now a rational number, not an irrational one anymore.

The size of the second application given the size of the first application and the expression ( x - 3.45 mb) for the size of the second application is 293.55 MB.

Let

For instance,

if the size of the first application is 297 MB

Size of the second application= x - 3.45 mb

= 297 MB - 3.45 MB

= 293.55 MB

Therefore, the size of the second application given the size of the first application and the expression for the size of the second application is 293.55 MB

Learn more about equation:

https://brainly.com/question/2972832

#SPJ1

The price elasticity of demand of the pen will be -0.2.

The demand and supply schedule will be:

Price Qd. Qs

$10. 250. 100

$20. 200. 90

$30. 180. 80

The price elasticity of demand from $1 to $2 will be:

= Percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price

Percentage change in quantity demanded will be:

= (200 - 250)/250 × 100

= -20%

Percentage change in price will be:

= (20 - 10)/10 × 100

= 100%

Therefore, the elasticity of demand will be:

= -20/100

= - 0.2

The value gotten illustrates an inelastic demand.

In order to increase the total revenue, the price can be reduced as it will lead to more sales.

Learn more about PED on:

brainly.com/question/21105870

#SPJ1

Complete question:

Choose any product or service. Create the demand and supply schedule.

Calculate just one PED.

Is the demand elastic or inelastic?

What price change would you recommend to increase TR?

The conclusion that can be made based on the hypothesis is:

1. It's a valid conclusion.

2. It is a valid conclusion.

3. It is a valid conclusion.

According to the law of detachment, when the conditional and the hypothesis are true, the conclusion will be true.

Therefore, if 6x < 42, the value of x will also be less than 6. This is valid.

When an angle is more than 90°, it's an obtuse angle and since A is 103°, it's valid.

Also, the statement about the violin being a string instrument is logically valid.

Learn more about hypothesis on:

brainly.com/question/11555274

#SPJ1

Angle HEJ measures 15 degrees.

The two quadrilateral with the listed properties are kite and rhombus respectively.

Thus, the two quadrilateral with the listed properties are kite and rhombus respectively.

Learn more about quadrilaterals here:

https://brainly.com/question/16691874

#SPJ1

Answer:

your welcome

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

this just means that the first function with input value x = 0 is calculated. that result becomes the input value x for the second function. and that result becomes the input value x for the 3rd function. and that result is then our result.

to answer a and b we only need to look at the main operation of each function :

the first one uses only basic multiplication and subtraction.

the second one uses squaring.

the third one is a 1/x operation.

a.

since the final result is a negative number (-31), the second function with the square operation cannot be last.

because a square operation always delivers a positive result.

+a × +a = +a²

-a × -a = +a²

remember, for a square operation we multiply the same number by itself. therefore we cannot mix signs like -a × +a, because then they would not be the same numbers anymore.

b.

since the initial input value is 0, the third function (1/x) cannot be the first, because 1/0 is not defined.

c.

because of the "large" -32 term in the first function I guess that this will be the last one to create such a low negative result of -31.

since 1/x cannot be first, (x - 2)² is then first. that makes 1/x second, and (4x - 32) third, as mentioned.

let's try :

x = 0

(x - 2)² = (0 - 2)² = (-2)² = 4

x = 4

1/x = 1/4

x = 1/4

4x - 32 = 4×1/4 - 32 = 1 - 32 = -31

hurrah ! we are correct !

Area equals Length times Width.

since the width of this equation is 5 units Longer then its Length

W = L + 5

To put this area in a equation we could say

L(L+5)=A
Simplify the equation, L^2 + 5L = A.

The direct variation function is y = 0.3x

The direct variation from y to x is represented as:

y = kx

When y = 1.5 and x = 5, we have

1.5 = 5k

Divide by 5

k = 0.3

Substitute k = 0.3 in y = kx

y = 0.3x

Hence, the direct variation function is y = 0.3x

Read more about direct variation at:

https://brainly.com/question/14254277

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

slope-- 1/2

y intercept-- -4

If the height of ball is shown by h(t)=52t-16[tex]t^{2}[/tex] then the ball will reach after 1.625 seconds.

Given that height in t seconds is shown by h(t)=52t-16[tex]t^{2}[/tex].

We are required to find the time after which the ball will attain its maximum height.

The maximum height is the y coordinate of vertex of the parabola. Then we can use the following value of t.

h(t)=52t-16[tex]t^{2}[/tex]

Differentiate with respect to t.

dh/dt=52-32t

Again differentiate with respect to t.

[tex]d^{2}h/dt^{2}[/tex]=-32t

Because tim cannot be negative means the height is maximum.

Put dh/dt=0

52-32t=0

-32t=-52

t=52/32

t=1.625

Hence if the height of ball is shown by h(t)=52t-16[tex]t^{2}[/tex] then the ball will reach after 1.625 seconds.

Question is incomplete as the right and complete equation is

h(t)=52t-16[tex]t^{2}[/tex] .

Learn more about differentiation at https://brainly.com/question/954654

#SPJ1

Answer:

one of several possible solutions :

18, 75, 105

Step-by-step explanation:

prime factors of 3150 :

3150 ÷ 2 = 1575

1575 ÷ 2 no

1575 ÷ 3 = 525

525 ÷ 3 = 175

175 ÷ 3 no

175 ÷ 5 = 35

35 ÷ 5 = 7

7 ÷ 5 no

7 ÷ 7 = 1

3150 = 2¹ × 3² × 5² × 7¹

these are the product of the longest streaks of prime factors in x, y and z.

the GCF(y, z) = 15.

the prime factors of 15 are simply 3¹×5¹.

so, y and z share only the factors 3 and 5.

the GCF(x, y, z) = 3.

since x is an even number, the elimination of 5 in the GCF is not surprising.

let's try the following :

x = 2¹ × 3² = 2×9 = 18

y = 3¹ × 5² = 3×25 = 75

z = 3¹ × 5¹ × 7¹ = 3×5×7 = 105

that uses all the factors of 3150, and their LCM is as the product of the longest streaks of their prime factors is

2¹ × 3² × 5² × 7¹.

fits.

the GCF(75, 105) is the product of the prime factors they have in common : 3¹ × 5¹ = 15.

fits.

the GCF(18, 75, 105) is the product of the prime factors ask 3 numbers have in common, which is only 3¹ = 3.

fits.

18 < 75 < 105

fits.

18 is an even number greater than 10.

fits.

there are more than 1 solutions.

e.g.

z = 2¹ × 3¹ × 5¹ × 7¹ = 210

is also possible.