Gestational age was calculated from the report of the mother's last normal menstrual period (LMP), and preterm delivery was defined as delivery at <37 completed weeks of gestation. SGA was defined as birth weight <10. percentile for gestational age and gender using INTERGROWTH standards
What is Small for gestational age?Small for gestational age (SGA) is defined as a birth weight less than the 10th percentile for gestational age. SGA children are divided into two main groups: constitutionally normal children who are SGA and children who are SGA due to growth restriction with a birth weight below the expected optimal birth weight. Constitutionally normal infants have a normal birth weight less than the 10th percentile due to inherent factors such as maternal height, weight, ethnicity, parity, and these infants are not at increased risk of perinatal mortality and morbidity. SGA and fetal growth restriction (FGR) are used interchangeably but are not synonymous. Many SGA infants have FGR, and many FGR infants are also SGA. However, SGA cannot be used as a marker for FGR because some infants with FGR will have a birth weight greater than the 10th percentile. Therefore, when differentiating between SGA and FGR, it is important to use fetal growth curves adjusted based on constitutional factors to differentiate normal SGA infants from those with FGR. In this article, we focused on infants with SGA secondary to FGR (FGR SGA)
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If you’re looking for an easy, portable, healthy snack, try __________. an energy bar a bowl of pasta vitamins a peanut butter sandwich
If you’re looking for an easy, portable, healthy snack, try __________.
an energy bar
a bowl of pasta
vitamins
a peanut butter sandwich✅If you wanted to add significant quantities of vitamins and minerals to your diet from the food you eat, a good choice would be
Fortified cereals such as raisin bran are a good choice to increase vitamins and minerals in the diet.
Whole grain contains the bran, the germ and the endosperm. So, fortified cereals such as oatmeal are fortified with macronutrients and micronutrients.
For instance, whole grain oatmeal is a good source of beta gluten fiber which lowers the cholesterol that is responsible for heart diseases.
Raisin bran is also a good cereal which is fortified with iron, calcium, vitamin A, C, D and E.
They also contain fibers which help in digestion and micronutrients present in these cereals lower the risk of diseases associated with deficiencies.
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A common foot condition with a sudden onset of pain in the arch region that is relieved by becoming non-weight bearing and gives extreme point tenderness at the plantar surface of the calcaneus may be indicative of a:
Plantar fascia strain
It results from plantar fascia irritation, overuse, or injury. The ligament that joins the front of your foot to your heel is called the plantar fascia.
What is Plantar fascia ?An infection of the thick tissue band that runs from the heel bone to the toes.
The bottom of the foot is covered in swollen tissue.
Repetitive action or anything that puts a lot of strain on the arch of your foot might lead to plantar fasciitis. Therefore, repetitive extended durations of standing or being on your feet, along with sports like running, jogging, and walking, can frequently cause plantar fasciitis.Learn more about Plantar fascia here:
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A man was stabbed in the cheek with a dinner fork, and the fork is still impaled in his cheek. he is conscious and alert, breathing adequately, and has blood in his oropharynx. you should:____.
He is conscious and alert, breathing adequately, and has blood in his oropharynx due to stab wound. you should: suction his oropharynx, control any external bleeding, stabilize the fork in place, and protect it with bulky dressings.
Despite not only occurring in criminal situations, catastrophic bleeding is a common outcome of stab wounds. Anywhere and at any time, it can occur. It can result from DIY accidents, mishaps in the kitchen, or even from a saw slip when trimming trees in the garden. There are a few very easy steps to do that could really assist and save lives.To manage shock and stop the person from feeling lightheaded and faint, sit or lie the person down.Check the region to determine if anything is lodged in the wound; if so, do not remove it.To stop the bleeding, raise the part that is bleeding above the level of the heart. Please be aware that current recommendations no longer existPressure – apply direct pressure on the wound to stop the blood coming outlearn more about stab wound here: https://brainly.com/question/14377971
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Reaching towards your toes while seated (with your legs out straight. and holding the stretch would be an example of?
Reaching towards your toes while seated (with your legs out straight. and holding the stretch would be an example of static stretching.
You must move a muscle as far as it will go without hurting, then hold that position for 20 to 45 seconds to perform static stretching. Static stretches should be performed twice to three times each. It is quite efficient to improve flexibility in this way.Contrarily, static stretching is done at the end of your workout and consists of stretches that you hold still for a while without moving. Your muscles can relax as a result, improving flexibility and range of motion.
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Which example did you choose? Explain why your choice is important in sequencing the ICD-10-CM codes. secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension in HIV (reason for the encounter is for HIV
In your own words, explain the guidelines that affect your example.
Which of the examples in the article do you think is the most difficult to understand? Explain why.
Secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension in HIV is classified by the ICD code 10 - I27.2-Other secondary pulmonary hypertension. the guidelines are affected because HIV is not specific but the ICD is for other pulmonary hypertension.
What is pulmonary hypertension in HIV patients?The diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension in HIV-positive patients requires a high degree of clinical suspicion, as the signs and symptoms are not specific. Dyspnea is the main symptom in patients with PAH, however, in patients with HIV, an infectious cause, mainly of respiratory origin, must be excluded.
With this information, we can conclude that ICD 10 provides codes relating to the classification of diseases and a wide variety of signs, symptoms, abnormal aspects, complaints, social circumstances.
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Chronic anger ________ the risk of heart disease and chronic depression ________ the risk of heart disease.
Answer:
increase and increase for both
According to Freud, a person may wish to reduce anxiety and protect the ego by utilizing
a. Freudian slips.
b. defense mechanisms.
c. the fight or flight reaction
d. the counterbalance of the superego.
The nurse palpates the anterior fontanel of a newborn and notes that it feels soft. what does this datum indicate to the nurse?
The anterior fontanel is a diamond-shaped area where the frontal and parietal bones meet. It closes between 12 and 18 months of age. Vigorous crying may cause the fontanel to bulge, which is a normal finding. A nurse is performing an assessment on a postterm infant.
What is anterior fontanel?This is the junction where the 2 frontal and 2 parietal bones meet. The anterior fontanelle stays soft until about 18 months to 2 years of age. Doctors can consider if there is increased intracranial pressure by touching the anterior fontanelle.The fontanel can broaden in the first few months of life,18 and the median age of closure is 13.8 months. By three months of age, the anterior fontanel is secured in 1 percent of infants; by 12 months, it is closed in 38 percent; and by 24 months, it is closed in 96 percent.The fontanelle allows the skull to distort during birth to facilitate its passage through the birth canal and for expansion of the brain after birth. Skull at birth, showing frontal and occipital fonticuli. The anterior fontanelle normally closes between the periods of 12 and 18 months.To learn more about anterior fontanel, refer to:
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What emerging trend in health care will need to be watched by therapeutic exercise professionals in the future
Remote home healthcare is an emerging trend in health care that will need to be watched by therapeutic exercise professionals in the future.
What is Remote home healthcare?Remote home healthcare refers to the techniques in which the patient can be diagnosed and treated in his/her home without the need to go to a clinical setting.
Remote healthcare is an increasingly growing practice and it will account for most of the clinical treatments in the future.
In conclusion, Remote home healthcare is an emerging trend in health care that will need to be watched by therapeutic exercise professionals in the future.
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Newborn screening reveals that newborn Jessica has inherited phenylketonuria (PKU). Her parents are distraught at the diagnosis, but a nutritionist explains that Jessica can be treated, right away. The treatment for PKU is
There is no cure for Phenylketonuria (PKU). The most important treatment is a diet that limits foods with phenylalanine. This means the diet must be low in protein.
What is Phenylketonuria?
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a rare genetic condition where babies are born unable to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. This causes phenylalanine to build up. When phenylalanine levels get too high, it can damage the brain. This can lead to intellectual and developmental disabilities.What is the treatment for PKU?
Phenylalanine is found in foods that contain protein. PKU is manageable, mostly through your diet. The key to living with PKU successfully is finding it early.New-borns diagnosed with the disease must use special infant formula. This can be mixed with small amounts of breast milk or regular formula. It’s a delicate balance. The baby does need some phenylalanine for normal development.People with PKU must also avoid food products that contain aspartame, as it's converted into phenylalanine in the body.A child with phenylketonuria will need regular blood tests to measure levels of phenylalanine in their blood and assess how well they're responding to treatment.To learn more about Phenylketonuria:
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Two life threatening arrhythmias that can cause cardiac arrest are pulseless ventricular and.
If a child younger than puberty, approximately 10-12 years old, is unconscious, and no one witnessed that person’s collapse, guidelines call for performing two minutes of cpr before you call 911 and use an aed. True or false?.
False
Call 911 first and then perform Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
How do you perform CPR on an infant up until puberty?30 rapid chest compressions should be given to your child with the heel of one or two hands placed over the bottom third of their breastbone (push fast). Make sure to apply enough pressure to cause their chest to descend by roughly 5 cm (2 inches) (push hard). Make a loud count. About 100–120 compressions per minute should be delivered.At what age can a youngster receive AED treatment?Most people are aware that a youngster, or someone between the ages of one and eight in First Aid parlance, can operate an AED. Pediatric/child pads are recommended because they lower the energy to about 50–75 joules.What is a child's CPR ratio?The youngster or infant will receive 15 compressions to every 2 breaths from a two-person CPR team.To learn more about handling an unconscious child visit:
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Babies born to teen mothers have a higher risk for low birth weight and infant death.
Answer:
Absolutely correct
Explanation:
Babies born by teenage mom's often have a low birth weight and most suffer death thus bringing an increase in infants mortality.Teenagers are still in their growth and development stages then imagine if that same teenager houses a baby there will be internal competition for nutrients leading to low weight in the baby.Also hormones like human placental lactogen which is important for babies growth can not be properly produced and also oestrogen,human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (hcG), and progesterone
Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are.
Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are "rapid adapting and phasic receptors."
What is sensory transduction?An action potential is produced when a stimulation toward a sensory receptor alters the ionic permeability of the cell membrane.
Sensory transduction is the process of transforming a sensory signal to an electrical signal.
A higher stimulus intensity will often result in more action potentials all along neurone.
However, certain receptor types will adjust to continuous stimulation in various ways:
Tonic receptors have a sluggish rate of adaptation. As long as the stimulus is present, they will react to it by producing an ongoing frequency with action potentials. As a result, they communicate information regarding the stimulus' duration.Phasic Receptors that are phasic adjust quickly. When stimulated, they react fast, but when stimulated repeatedly, they stop reacting. As a result, under sustained stimulation, the frequency of action potentials reduces. The information about changes to the stimulus, such as intensity, is communicated by this sort of receptor.To know more about sensory transduction and signal transduction, here
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What soft material forms on the teeth and is primary cause of gingival inflammtion?
Answer:
gunk
Explanation:
The lab results of a newly admitted patient indicate renal impairment. How might this affect the dosing regimen of drugs that are excreted by the kidney?.
Which structure receives sperm from the efferent ductules and sends it on to the vas deferens? true or false?.
Epididymis
The epididymis serves as a storage location for maturing sperm. The mature sperms are moved into the vas deferens by smooth muscle contractions when they are activated.
What is Male reproductive system ?The majority of the male reproductive system is found external to the body. The testicles, scrotum, and p-enis are some of these external organs
The vas deferens, prostate, and urethra are internal organs. The male reproductive system is in charge of both urine and $exual function.To create, preserve, and move sperm (male reproductive cells) and semen (protective fluid); to release sperm into the female reproductive system during inter course.Learn more about Male reproductive system here:
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what is respiratory system exactly?
Answer:
The respiratory system is made up of the organs that transport oxygen throughout your body.
Explanation:
Your airways, lungs, and blood vessels work together to bring oxygen into your body and remove waste gases, such as carbon dioxide from your body.
Genetic influences are represented by a measure that estimates how much of some behavior is due to genetic influences; this measure is referred to as ________.
a. Incorrect. Personality is the relatively stable, long-term characteristic pattern of behaviors and traits a person has.
b. temperament
c. heritability
d. personality
e. epigenetics
The correct answer is heritability.
What is heritability?The degree to which genetic variations among persons may adequately explain the variations in their attributes is known as heritability. Characteristics like height, eye color, and IQ are examples of traits, as are illnesses like schizophrenia and an autism spectrum disorder.Estimates of heritability range from 0 to 1. When a variable's heritability is near zero, environmental influences, rather than genetic differences, account for the majority of a person's variation in that trait. Because they are not governed by genetics, traits like religion or language have zero heritability.It is possible to estimate two distinct heritabilities. The ratio of total genetic variance to total phenotypic variance is known as broad-sense heritability. The ratio of additive genetic variance to the sum of all phenotypic variance is known as narrow-sense heritability.Genetic influences are represented by a measure that estimates how much of some behavior is due to genetic influences; this measure is referred to as heritability.
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A client who regularly takes metformin has developed a severe infection. How will the infection change the established diabetic regimen
The established diabetic regimen will have to be changed and the dosage of metformin will have to be tapered off and eventually the client will have to stop taking metformin until he recovers.
What is Metformin?Metformin is used to treat type 2 diabetes, a form of diabetes mellitus or sugar diabetes that results in high blood sugar levels.
One of the serious complications of Metformin is lactic acidosis which may lead to a severe infection.
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The correct option is B.
Metformin is contraindicated in the presence of an infection.
According to the Statement:Patients with diabetes who have acidosis, pregnancy, serious infections, severe injuries, or a fever are forbidden from taking metformin. In order to lower blood sugar, metformin won't be taken more regularly. If you want your blood sugar to be better controlled, stop taking metformin. The patient's glucose absorption will not be reduced by metformin.
What is the use of Metformin?For the treatment of high blood sugar, metformin is taken along with a healthy diet, an exercise regimen, and maybe additional drugs.
What kind of drug is metformin?Biguanides are a group of medications that includes metformin. Blood glucose (sugar) levels can be managed with the aid of metformin. Both the quantity of glucose your liver produces and the amount you absorb from food are reduced by it.
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I understand that the question you are looking for is:
A client who regularly takes metformin has developed a severe infection. How will the infection change his diabetic regimen?
Select one:
A. Metformin will be given more frequently to decrease blood sugar.
B. Metformin is contraindicated in the presence of an infection.
C. Metformin will result in better regulation of blood sugar.
D. Metformin will allow the patient to decrease the absorption of glucose.
David a cma obtains mr Washington vital signs after he has escorted him to the examination room
David, a CMA (AAMA), obtains Mr. Washington's vital signs after he has escorted him to the examination room. David notes Mr. Washington's vital signs as follows: Wt: 235 lbs, T: 97.6°F, P: 94 bpm, rapid and bounding, BP: 148/92. What can you ascertain from these findings?
These findings shows that Mr. Washington is hypertensive.
What is hypertension?Hypertension is defined as a clinical condition whereby the heart pumps blood against the peripheral blood vessels at a high pressure.
The vital signs are does cardinal signs that can be used to monitor the vital organs of the body.
From the data obtained from blood pressure of Mr. Washington, which is systolic/ diastolic pressure of 148/92, shows that he is hypertensive.
This is because, a hypertensive patient has a BP reading of 140/90mmHg or higher (or 150/90mmHg).
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According to the assigned reading, in the united states, the amount of caffeine contained in an energy beverage must be stated on the label.
a. true
b. false
According to the assigned reading, in the united states, the amount of caffeine contained in an energy beverage must be stated on the label is false.
Energy drinks and caffeine:The current regulation of items containing caffeine is inconsistent, does not serve the interests of consumers, and needs to be changed in a number of different ways. We argue in favor of one of the necessary legislative changes: the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) should mandate that the caffeine quantity be listed on the labels of all consumable items with added caffeine. Foods and beverages that contain caffeine are not currently obliged to list their caffeine amount on the label.
In addition to protecting people who are most susceptible to caffeine-related negative effects, strengthening these weak labeling regulations could increase consumer autonomy and efficient caffeine usage. Customers should be aware of how much caffeine is in the meals and beverages they consume because they have an interest in controlling their caffeine intake.
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In the body, erythrocytes are red because of the oxidized iron they contain. In stained blood smears, erythrocytes are?
In the body, erythrocytes are red because of the oxidized iron they contain. In stained blood smears, erythrocytes are pink from eosin.
A blood smear is created by spreading a drop of blood thinly over a glass slide, treating the slide with a specific stain, and then examining and analysing the blood cells on the slide. Normal, adult red blood cells lack a nucleus, unlike the majority of other cells, and are uniformly sized (7-8 m in diameter).
They have a dip in the centre rather than a hole since they are round and flattened like donuts (biconcave). After staining the blood smear, the RBCs have a pink colour with a pale core as a result of the haemoglobin they contain. When RBC morphology (appearance) is normal, it is frequently described as normochromic (normal colour) and normocytic (normal size).
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Because it is still considered cpr, the force used on an adult should be the same for a child and infant receiving cpr; the body will stop the compression where necessary. True or false?.
It is false that the force used on an adult should be the same for a child and infant receiving CPR because the body will stop the compression where necessary.
What is CPR?CPR is the abbreviation form for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
It is a medical first-aid procedure that involves the compression of the chest repeatedly and artificial respiration.
It is usually performed to maintain blood circulation and oxygenation in a person who has suffered cardiac arrest.
However, it should be done with caution as it can lead to more harm than good if not done carefully.
CPR should be administered putting into consideration the age group of the victim, therefore, it is false that the force used on an adult should be the same for a child and infant receiving CPR because the body will stop the compression where necessary.
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Outbreaks of Ebola and other highly-contagious diseases often become epidemics in low-income countries because
Answer: Because they cannot not afford the medicine needed to treat the diseases and don't have the means to keep the diseases in one area
Explanation:
Cholecystokinin, which is produced in the small intestine, inhibits gastric secretions in the stomach. True or false?.
The small intestine produces cholecystokinin, which stops the stomach from secreting gastric juices. The statement that follows is true.
Discussion about Cholecystokinin-
A peptide transmitter called cholecystokinin(CCK) is released into the blood after a meal and is largely made by enteroendocrine cells in the proximal small intestine. Circulating CCK stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contraction, controls stomach emptying and bowel movement, and promotes satiety via binding to particular cholecystokinin-1(CCK-1) receptors mostly on pancreas, stomach smooth muscle, and peripheral nerves. The coordination of nutritional intake, digestion, and absorption is achieved via these effects. The main dietary components that increase cholecystokinin(CCK )release are ingested fat and protein.CCK was first discovered to be a 33-amino-acid polypeptide. Yet, bigger and smaller versions of CCK were found in the brain, gut, and blood from its very discovery. A preprohormone undergoes posttranslational synthesis to yield all variants of CCK from a particular gene.Learn more about cholecystokinin here:
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Eric has high blood pressure, and his doctors have found no specific cause. This is most properly called ________.
Answer:
It's called essential hypertension
Saying a person has _____disorders means the individual has two or more diagnoses.
If a person has a disorder where the individual has two or more diagnoses, it is called comorbid disorder.
What is Comorbid disorder?Comorbidity is the occurrence of two or more illnesses or conditions in the same person.They could take place simultaneously or one after the other.Comorbidity also denotes interactions between the diseases that could make both of them worsen.Conditions relating to comorbid disorder:Physical conditions include diabetes, cardiovascular disease, cancer, infectious infections, and dementia are examples of comorbid conditions.Eating disorders, anxiety disorders, and substance misuse are among the mental health issues that frequently coexist.Prevalence of Comorbid disorder:People frequently receive diagnoses for two diseases or conditions at once.Comorbidity in mental illness can occur when a person receives a medical diagnosis followed by a mental disorder diagnosis (or vice versa), or when a mental disorder diagnosis is made followed by the diagnosis of another mental disorder.Treatment:A major issue for medical personnel is when medical and mental illnesses coexist.For instance, a person who has been diagnosed with both diabetes and depression would receive therapy for both disorders, but coordination between the multiple healthcare providers providing treatment would be required to account for drug and symptom overlap.
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Aida and Bill are discussing eye and ear drugs. Aida says ophthalmic drugs are used for the eyes. Bill says otic drugs are used for the ears. Who is correct
Both are correct ophthalmic drugs are apply to the ear and optic drugs are apply to the ear.
When drugs are dispensed by the veterinarian which of the following must be on the label?
The name, address, active component name, identity of the animal(s) to be treated, complete usage instructions, cautions/precautions, including milk and meat withdrawal times, must all appear on the container itself.
Which branch of the Food and Drug Administration watches over veterinary drugs?
The production and distribution of foods, food additives, and medications intended for use in animals are governed by the Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM), a division of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the United States.
What is the purpose of the Food and Drug Administration ?
The Food and Drug Administration's responsibility is to ensure the security, efficacy, and safety of medications, vaccines, medical equipment, food supplies, cosmetics, and dietary supplements. Tobacco products are subject to FDA regulation.Learn more about The Food and Drug Administration's
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