The impact of Nimodipine on cardiac contractile cells is that Ca[tex]2^{+}[/tex] would enter into the cell independent of electrical stimulation and would stimulate Ca[tex]2^{+}[/tex] release to produce more frequent cardiac muscle contractions.
The voltage-gated L-type calcium channels located on the smooth muscle cells of arterial blood arteries are what dihydropyridines bind to and block to function. Voltage-gated L-type calcium channels are ones that typically open in response to an electrical signal, often known as an action potential.
A calcium channel blocker, nimodipine. Calcium ions, which enter smooth muscle cells as slow ionic transmembrane currents after depolarization, are necessary for the contractile actions of these cells. It's likely that Nimodipine will improve the cardiovascular effects of other calcium channel blockers.
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Which ion species is a cell membrane (such as a neuron) most permeable to at rest (i. e. , resting membrane potential)?
The cell membrane is most permeable to potassium ions at the resting membrane potential.
What is resting membrane potential?The difference in the membrane potential between the inside of a cell and the outside of a cell is called resting membrane potential. This is usually 30 to 90 mV with the inside of the cell being more negative compared to the outside of the cell.
Because of the potential difference across the cell membrane, it is said to be polarized. In a condition where the membrane potential becomes more positive than the resting membrane potential, the membrane becomes depolarized. In a condition where membrane potential becomes more negative compared to the resting membrane potential, it becomes hyperpolarized.
All electrical signals used by the neurons are either due to depolarization or hyperpolarization from the resting membrane potential.
This resting membrane potential is determined by the movement of potassium ions across the membrane.
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Moving your finger across a textured surface can produce vibrations that are interpreted as texture. These vibrations are defined as?
Moving your finger across a textured surface can produce vibrations that are interpreted as texture. These vibrations are defined as temporal cues.
Temporal envelope (ENV) or temporal cues are changes in the amplitude and frequency of sound perceived by humans over time. These temporal changes are responsible for several aspects of auditory perception, including loudness, pitch and timbre perception and spatial hearing.
Complex sounds such as speech or music are decomposed by the peripheral auditory system of humans into narrow frequency bands. The resulting narrow-band signals convey information at different time scales ranging from less than one millisecond to hundreds of milliseconds. A dichotomy between slow "temporal envelope" cues and faster "temporal fine structure" cues has been proposed to study several aspects of auditory perception (e.g., loudness, pitch and timbre perception, auditory scene analysis, sound localization) at two distinct time scales in each frequency band.
Over the last decades, a wealth of psychophysical, electrophysiological and computational studies based on this envelope/fine-structure dichotomy have examined the role of these temporal cues in sound identification and communication, how these temporal cues are processed by the peripheral and central auditory system, and the effects of aging and cochlear damage on temporal auditory processing.
Although the envelope/fine-structure dichotomy has been debated and questions remain as to how temporal fine structure cues are actually encoded in the auditory system, these studies have led to a range of applications in various fields including speech and audio processing, clinical audiology and rehabilitation of sensorineural hearing loss via hearing aids or cochlear implants.
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The hormone _____ stimulates the storage of triglycerides during times of energy excess.
The hormone insulin stimulates the storage of triglycerides during times of energy excess.
Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets encoded in humans by the INS gene. It is considered to be the main anabolic hormone of the body.
It regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and protein by promoting the absorption of glucose from the blood into liver, fat and skeletal muscle cells. In these tissues the absorbed glucose is converted into either glycogen via glycogenesis or fats (triglycerides) via lipogenesis, or, in the case of the liver, into both.
Glucose production and secretion by the liver is strongly inhibited by high concentrations of insulin in the blood. Circulating insulin also affects the synthesis of proteins in a wide variety of tissues. It is therefore an anabolic hormone, promoting the conversion of small molecules in the blood into large molecules inside the cells. Low insulin levels in the blood have the opposite effect by promoting widespread catabolism, especially of reserve body fat.
Full question :
Q. The hormone ___________ stimulates the storage of triglycerides during times of energy excess, such as after a meal, by causing adipocytes, and to a lesser extent skeletal muscle, to take up glucose and fatty acids from the blood.
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The cns (central nervous system) is lacking in animals that have ________.
a. a complete gut
b. a closed circulatory system
c. radial symmetry
d. excitable membranes
The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have radial symmetry because radial symmetry has a shape of symmetry where distinguishable parts are organized in circular mold around the central p-ivot. Thus, option C is correct.
What is radial symmetry?Radial symmetry is a form of symmetry in which identical parts are arranged in circular pattern around the central axis.
Animal having radial symmetry can be divided into equal halves when cutting through the central axis.
Animals such as starfish, Hydra and coelenterata shows radial symmetry.
Therefore, the central nervous system is lacking in animals that have radial symmetry.Thus, option C is correct.
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A researcher has sequenced a gene that is present in two alleles. She has a mixture of both alleles and clones them into e. Coli using plasmids that contain the lacz gene. She is interested in one particular allele that is indicated in a disease. Using media containing x-gal, how can she select those colonies that have her allele of interest?.
She will have to sequence the plasmids of the white colonies before knowing which allele it contains.
What are plasmids?A plasmid is a tiny, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that differs from chromosomal DNA in a cell. Plasmids are naturally found in bacterial cells and in certain eukaryotes. plasmid genes frequently confer genetic benefits to bacteria, such as antibiotic resistance. RNA plasmids are uncommon, and the majority of them are poorly understood. Plants, fungi, and even mammals have provided examples. Linear RNA plasmids are found in some strains of the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Similar RNA plasmids have been discovered in the mitochondria of various maize plant types.To learn more about plasmids from the given link
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PLEASE HELP:
Read the scenario.
An ecologist was studying freshwater wetlands across the
southeastern United States. While studying one wetland, the
ecologist noticed that native wetland shrubs and trees were
dying. The ecologist also observed that young shrubs and trees
were stunted in growth and very sparse. At the same time, the
ecologist counted new growth in an invasive reed. The ecologist
wondered why so many native plants were dying.
By reading surveys of the surrounding land, the ecologist
learned that the freshwater wetland bordered a saltmarsh along
the coast. The ecologist also learned that the invasive reed
observed intruding into the wetland was very common in the
nearby saltmarsh. Geological surveys also revealed a gradual
increase in sea level along the coastline and an increase in
salinity in the soil.
Which question most closely relates to the ecologist's
observations and collected data?
A. What is the average age of trees in the freshwater
wetland?
B. How many species of fish live in the freshwater
wetland?
C. Are the wetland trees and shrubs dying due to an
increase in soil salinity?
D. What kinds of wildlife live in the freshwater wetland
compared to the saltmarsh?
Answer:
obviously C.
there is no description for other questions.
The question will be "Are the wetland trees and shrubs dying due to an increase in soil salinity?" The correct option is C.
What are wetlands?Wetlands are places where water covers the soil or is present at or close to the soil's surface all year long or intermittently throughout the year, including during the growing season.
A wetland is a unique environment that experiences seasonal or persistent flooding or saturation by water (for weeks or months).
While conducting research on freshwater wetlands in the Southeast of the United States, an ecologist. The ecologist saw withering native wetland plants and trees while researching one particular wetland.
Are the marsh trees and shrubs dying because the soil is becoming more salinized? is the query that best connects to the ecologist's observations and data.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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Internal and external information is brought to the brain in the process of _____.
Internal and external information is brought to the brain in the process of consciousness.
A brain function brought about by neural mechanisms is consciousness. The three main components of consciousness are representation by firing patterns in neuronal groups, binding of these representations into semantic pointers, and competition amongst semantic pointers.
Brain matter creates our consciousness and our capacity for awareness and thought through the use of electromagnetic radiation. In addition to processing sensory and motor information, the cerebral cortex also facilitates consciousness, or our capacity to think about ourselves and the outside world.
Therefore, Internal and external information is brought to the brain in the process of consciousness.
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In pcr, an instrument is used to increase and decrease the temperature at set intervals in order to:________.
In order to generate several copies of the desired DNA sequence, the PCR procedure includes repeatedly heating and cooling the reaction through a series of temperature variations.
A partial match between the primer and the template will be stable enough at lower temperatures, allowing for more widespread amplification. Your specificity will increase as the temperature rises because longer suitable sequences are needed for the primer to bind to.In order to generate several copies of the desired DNA sequence, the PCR procedure includes repeatedly heating and cooling the reaction through a series of temperature variations.One significant benefit of PCR is the ability to amplify target sequences from a single copy of the starting material, even when the template is tainted with inhibitors and degraded.learn more about PCR here: https://brainly.com/question/7177771
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In conclusion, mention three values you have acquired through
Some of the values that a student can acquire through education are:
EmpathyCare EqualityIntegrityHonesty, etc.What are Values?This refers to the degree of importance of a thing or event that is in line with the ethics and belief system of a person that guides his interaction with others.
Hence, we can see that although your question is incomplete, a general overview is given to help you better understand the concept of values and the importance of education.
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A cross among monohybrids is a ____ cross.
Answer:
A cross among monohybrids is called a monohybrid cross
Compare artificial and biological neural networks. what aspects of biological networks are not mimicked by artificial ones? what aspects are similar?
2. Imagine that a stream of water becomes heavily polluted over time. Predict how you think the following properties would change: • pH • water hardness • nitrate and ammonia levels
Pollution is a degradation of the environment that causes a harmful effect on the environment and on the living beings that develop there. Pollution can be caused by humans, but also due to natural processes. There are different types of pollution, such as atmospheric, water, soil, sound and visual.
What is the importance of pH in aquatic life?pH is important because it sets the stage for how easily nutrients are available (which can lead to algal blooms) and how easily things like heavy metals dissolve in water (creating toxicity to aquatic life).
How does water hardness affect the environment?The most important impact of hardness on fish and other aquatic life appears to be the affect the presence of these ions has on the other more toxic metals
What are the levels of nitrate and ammonia?Ammonium nitrate is used in fertigated crops, a fertilization technique in which the fertilizer is diluted in drip irrigation water. Fertilizers used in agriculture are made up of ammonium nitrate, the same substance that caused the massive explosion in Beirut, Lebanon, last week.
With this information, we can conclude that Rivers are polluted by the contamination of organic waste, including human and animal excreta, and agricultural waste resulting from plant decomposition. With the increase in population and the emergence of industrial activity, the pollution of rivers and lakes did not cease to increase.
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Answer:
PH: It will become less acidic
water hardness: It will become more harder
nitrate and ammonia levels: They will both increase
Explanation:
I need an answer as soon as possible please!! will mark as brainliest
Answer:
Yes! the given evidence supports theory.
Explanation:
Greetings !
DNA base pair. Under normal circumstances, the nitrogen-containing bases adenine (A) and thymine (T) pair together known as purines, , and cytosine (C) and guanine (G) pair together known as pyrimidines . The binding of these base pairs forms the structure of DNA.
Thus, in the above diagram it shows the purely shows the proportionality.
The structural layer of the earth that flows because it is hot and under extreme pressure is what?
Genital warts are difficult to treat effectively because Group of answer choices they grow into large clusters on most infected individuals. available treatments do not eradicate the virus. the incubation period is very short. the bacterium that causes them is resistant to most antibiotics.
The correct answer to this question is that available treatments do not eradicate the virus.
Genital wart is a viral infection and a sexually transmitted disease. The virus which causes this disease is called HPV(Human Papillomavirus). In the current day scenario, no permanent cure is available for this disease. They disappear all on their own and then return.
Doctors recommend temporary treatments like topical creams(such as Imiquimod), cryotherapy, electrodesiccation(efficiency 94%), and laser treatment to treat genital warts. With these treatments, warts fell from the infected area after they again return after some weeks or sometimes after a year. These treatments also have their side effects.
Hence, there is no permanent solution or cure for this disease.
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When a person has down syndrome, he or she has an extra chromosome 21. therefore, down syndrome is a kind of __________ and results from __________.
When a person has down syndrome, he or she has an extra chromosome 21. therefore, down syndrome is a kind of "aneuploidy" and results from "non-dis-junction of chromosome 21 during meiosis I".
What is down syndrome?When chromosome 21 is fully or partially duplicated, Down syndrome is present.
The cause of down syndrome is-
Every cell within the human body has a nucleus, which houses the genes that store genetic material. All of our inherited qualities are encoded by genes, which are arranged along rod-like structures known as chromosomes. Each cell typically has 23 chromosome pairs in its nucleus, half of which inherited out of each parent.Some characteristics of down syndrome are-
This extra genetic material changes the development course and results in the Down syndrome-related traits. Low muscle tone, short stature, upward-slanted eyes, as well as a single deep crease in the middle of the palm are a few of the physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome, while each person with the condition is unique and may not have any of these characteristics at all.To know more about down syndrome, here
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A ____________ is composed of a five-carbon sugar that is attached to a ____________ and a nitrogen-containing base.
A nucleotide is composed of a five-carbon sugar that is attached to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing base.
Deoxyribose sugars connected to phosphate groups make up the DNA backbone. Chains are formed by the phosphodiester bonds connecting these units. By forming hydrogen bonds with the complementary base pairs of nitrogenous bases, which are attached to the sugars of these groups, DNA strands are joined together.
The monomers that make up nucleic acids are called nucleotides. They are made up of a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and a five-carbon sugar. A free hydroxyl group on the 3' carbon of the following nucleotide forms an ester link with the phosphate group connected to the 5' carbon of the sugar on the first nucleotide.
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Which microorganism is known for surviving in the phagolysosome to avoid host cell detection?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is known for surviving in the phagolysosome to avoid host cell detection. Thus, option B is correct.
What is phagolysosome?A phagolysosome is a type of cytoplasmic body which is an union of phagosome and a lysosome. The interior is highly acidic and contain hydrolytic enzymes.
These enzymes digest and destroy the harmful microorganisms.
The mechanism of formation of Phagolysosome by phagocytosis is an immunological functions.
Although phagolysosome and phagosomes are membrane bound vesicles, primary difference is that phagolysosome is formed by the fusion of a phagosome with a lysosome where as phagosome is formed around the particles engulfed by a phagocytic cell.
Hence, option B is correct.
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Your question was incomplete. Hence the probable question was
Which microorganism is known for surviving in the phagolysosome to avoid host cell detection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycoplasma sp.
D. micrococcus luteus
Anna read a magazine article about Alaskan ice storms. Anna's friend Sam asked her what the article was about, and she explained the article's main points. What active reading strategy did Anna use?
A. Summarizing
B. Drawing inferences
C. Making predictions
D. Making mental images
All vertebrate embryos have _____ at some point during embryonic development, indicating a common evolutionary ancestor
All chordates chare four structures. One of the is the tail. All vertebrate embryos have _a tail__ at some point during embryonic development, indicating a common evolutionary ancestor.
What is the relationship between chordates?The evolutionary relationship between species is reflected in the similarities or differences in the patterns of embryonic development.
All chordates belong to the Chordata phylum, and share four main characteristics,
Notochord, which is a precursor of the dorsal spine.Nerv cord, dorsally located and parallel to the notochord.Pharyngeal cleftsTail
All chordates express these structures at some point in their lives, especially in the early stages of embryogenesis. Many of them can be lost with animal development and become vestigial structures.
The tail is a vestigial structure in many vertebrates.
Vestigial structures are those body parts, genetically determined, that have been retained during the evolution of the taxonomic group but have lost or reduced their original function.
Such vestigial structures were plenty functional in the ancestors of new species, but now are typically degenerate, stunted, or rudimentary, and tend to be much more variable than homologous non-vestigial parts
All vertebrates develop a tail at some point in their embryonic life, even humans. However, this structure lost its original function in several species, so after a period of embryogenesis, this tail disappears, and its forming vertebras get fussed with each other composing the coccyx.
In many animals, the function of the tail is to stabilize, equilibrate and mobilize. But in humans, for instance, the coccyx has lost this function but is still an area of muscle insertion.
The correct option is Tail.
All vertebrate embryos have _a tail_ at some point during embryonic development, indicating a common evolutionary ancestor.
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In a gene expression pattern called ______, the heterozygote has an intermediate phenotype between the homozygotes.
Answer:
Incomplete Dominance
Glucagon and insulin have antagonistic effects. glucagon signaling results in an increase in blood glucose concentration. What do you expect is the result of insulin signaling?
Since Glucagon and insulin have antagonistic effects, if glucagon signals increase in blood glucose concentration, insulin would result in a decrease in blood glucose concentration.
Glucagon and insulin are both important hormones that play essential roles in regulating your blood glucose (sugar).
Both hormones come from your pancreas — alpha cells in your pancreas make and release glucagon, and beta cells in your pancreas make and release insulin.
The two hormones counterbalance each other to stabilize blood glucose. When blood glucose levels fall too low (low blood glucose), the pancreas pumps out more glucagon.
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In order, from the earliest to the most recent?
a. evolution of eukaryotic cells
b. origin of prokaryotic cells
c. evolution of multicellular organisms
d. plants and fungi colonize land
b. origin of prokaryotic cells
a. evolution of eukaryotic cells
c. evolution of multicellular organisms
d. plants and fungi colonize land
Prokaryotes are primitive cells without nuclei that were the first to evolve. Their DNA is round. Circular DNA is found in the mitochondrion and chlorophyll of eukaryotes as well, which shows that prokaryotes evolved first.According to fossil evidence, eukaryotes diverged from prokaryotes between 1.5 and 2 billion years ago. Studies of mitochondria and chloroplasts, which are assumed to have evolved from bacteria residing in big cells, are particularly helpful in supporting the idea that eukaryotic cells originated from an endosymbiotic association of prokaryotes.Eukaryotic cells' evolution is explained by the endosymbiotic hypothesis. Both the large and small cells profited from their symbiotic interaction. Some of the small cells were able to use the energy from the waste products of the large cells. They provided energy for more than just themselves.learn more about prokaryotic here: https://brainly.com/question/5716507
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________ is a critical abiotic factor that contributes to plant growth in savanna ecosystems.
Fire is a critical abiotic factor that contributes to plant growth in savanna ecosystems.
An abiotic factor is a non-living part of an ecosystem that shapes its environment. In a terrestrial ecosystem, examples might include water, light, fire, radiation, temperature, humidity, atmosphere, acidity, and soil.
A savanna is a mixed woodland-grassland (i.e. grassy woodland) ecosystem characterized by the trees being sufficiently widely spaced so that the canopy does not close. The open canopy allows sufficient light to reach the ground to support an unbroken herbaceous layer consisting primarily of grasses. The abiotic, or non-living, factors that affect an ecosystem include the local temperature, light intensity, geology and presence of pollutants.
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An antibiotic is given repeatedly to treat a recurrent ear infection. it worked initially but now is no longer effective. This indicates that the streptococcus bacterium?
An antibiotic is given repeatedly to treat a recurrent ear infection. it worked initially but now is no longer effective. This indicates that the streptococcus bacterium has become resistant to the antibiotic.
When bacteria adapt to the use of antibiotics, antibiotic resistance develops. Antibiotic resistance develops in bacteria, not in people or other animals. Both humans and animals are susceptible to infection from these germs, and their infections are more difficult to treat than those brought on by non-resistant bacteria.Gram-negative bacteria have a membrane covering their outer surface that shields them from their surroundings. This membrane can be used by these bacteria to block the entry of specific antibiotics. Using pumps built into their cell walls, bacteria eliminate antibiotics that enter the cell.If you don't feel better after receiving therapy with conventional antibiotics, you may have an illness that is resistant to such drugs.learn more about bacteria resistance here: https://brainly.com/question/8050491
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Which chain of volcanic islands is not part of a convergent/subduction plate boundary?
Hawai'an volcanic islands
Hawai'an volcanic islands is not part of a convergent/subduction plate boundary.
What kind of plate boundary produces a sequence of volcanic islands?convergent boundaryAlong the convergent boundary, the new magma (molten rock) rises and may erupt violently to form volcanoes, frequently creating arcs of islands. Divergent plate boundaries are created when two plates are moving apart.Why do volcanic chains and convergent borders coexist?Subduction causes melting that is partially molten. Water loss in the plate causes partial melting. Mantle material melts as a result and rises to the surface.Which are the 4 types of convergent boundries?Divergent Plate Boundary. Convergent Plate Boundary. Transform Plate Boundary. Hotspot.To learn more about volcanic islands visit:
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The coding sequence in the dna of __________ is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by noncoding sequences.
a. bacteria
b. plants
c. most insects
d. mammals
Option (A) Bacteria is the correct answer.
The coding sequence in the DNA of bacteria is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by non-coding sequences.
How are coding sequences in the DNA of bacteria?The segments in the genome known as non-coding sequences don't encode for any proteins or amino acids.
These sequences either have structurally significant functions in telomeres or satellite DNA, play functional roles in controlling gene expression, or are intervening sequences known as introns.
Although bacteria have non-coding DNA sequences, they are quite a few in comparison to eukaryotic cells.
Non-coding sections make up only 12 percent of the bacterial genome, as opposed to 98 percent in eukaryotes.
The great majority of known bacterial ncRNAs are encoded from intergenic regions, where, like protein-coding genes, their production is regulated by promoter and terminator elements.
Therefore, the coding sequence in the DNA of bacteria is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by non-coding sequences.
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A ________ molecule is a glycoprotein used to identify and distinguish white blood cells.
A cluster of differentiation molecule is a glycoprotein used to identify and distinguish white blood cells.
The cluster of differentiation (CD) classification refers to proteins found on the surface of cells. Each unique surface molecule is assigned a different number, which allows cell phenotypes to be identified. These cell surface molecules of leukocytes are routinely detected with anti-leukocyte monoclonal antibodies. Clusters of antigens on the surface of leukocytes can be designated by their reactions with monoclonal antibodies.CD molecules are surface molecules expressed on cells of the immune system that play key roles in immune cell-cell communication and sensing the microenvironment.
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Briefly explain why only chromosomes of a homologous pair can have their alleles referred toas homozygous or heterozygous
Only chromosomes of a homologous pair can have their alleles referred to as homozygous or heterozygous because only homologous chromosomes would have the same genes at the same physical locations on those chromosomes. Otherwise, the alleles of different genes would have no relationship.
Homologous chromosomes, or homologs, are a set of one maternal and one paternal chromosome that pair up with each other inside a cell during fertilization. Homologs have the same genes in the same loci where they provide points along each chromosome which enable a pair of chromosomes to align correctly with each other before separating during meiosis.
This is the basis for Mendelian inheritance which characterizes inheritance patterns of genetic material from an organism to its offspring parent developmental cell at the given time and area.
Chromosomes are linear arrangements of condensed deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and histone proteins, which form a complex called chromatin. Homologous chromosomes are made up of chromosome pairs of approximately the same length, centromere position, and staining pattern, for genes with the same corresponding loci. One homologous chromosome is inherited from the organism's mother; the other is inherited from the organism's father.
After mitosis occurs within the daughter cells, they have the correct number of genes which are a mix of the two parents' genes.
In diploid organisms, the genome is composed of one set of each homologous chromosome pair, as compared to tetraploid organisms which may have two sets of each homologous chromosome pair. The alleles on the homologous chromosomes may be different, resulting in different phenotypes of the same genes.
This mixing of maternal and paternal traits is enhanced by crossing over during meiosis, wherein lengths of chromosomal arms and the DNA they contain within a homologous chromosome pair are exchanged with one another.
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After a stroke, what type of glial cell accumulates within the affected brain region?
Answer:
Treg cells accumulate after ischemic stroke (175). Astrocytes increase the level of IL-33 and CCL1 in response to stroke. IL-33 is thought to promote the proliferation of Treg cells because their numbers in the CNS after stroke is decreased in IL-33-deficient mice (175).