Only chromosomes of a homologous pair can have their alleles referred to as homozygous or heterozygous because only homologous chromosomes would have the same genes at the same physical locations on those chromosomes. Otherwise, the alleles of different genes would have no relationship.
Homologous chromosomes, or homologs, are a set of one maternal and one paternal chromosome that pair up with each other inside a cell during fertilization. Homologs have the same genes in the same loci where they provide points along each chromosome which enable a pair of chromosomes to align correctly with each other before separating during meiosis.
This is the basis for Mendelian inheritance which characterizes inheritance patterns of genetic material from an organism to its offspring parent developmental cell at the given time and area.
Chromosomes are linear arrangements of condensed deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and histone proteins, which form a complex called chromatin. Homologous chromosomes are made up of chromosome pairs of approximately the same length, centromere position, and staining pattern, for genes with the same corresponding loci. One homologous chromosome is inherited from the organism's mother; the other is inherited from the organism's father.
After mitosis occurs within the daughter cells, they have the correct number of genes which are a mix of the two parents' genes.
In diploid organisms, the genome is composed of one set of each homologous chromosome pair, as compared to tetraploid organisms which may have two sets of each homologous chromosome pair. The alleles on the homologous chromosomes may be different, resulting in different phenotypes of the same genes.
This mixing of maternal and paternal traits is enhanced by crossing over during meiosis, wherein lengths of chromosomal arms and the DNA they contain within a homologous chromosome pair are exchanged with one another.
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For gas exchange with the atmosphere, the respiratory tissue...
Question 5 options:
a) Must have thick cell walls
b) Have a large surface area
c) Be moist
d) Both b and c are correct
e) a) b) and c) are all correct
Answer:
i guess both option b and c are correct
For gas exchange with the atmosphere, the respiratory tissue must have thin walls, large surface area and be moist.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option d) Both b and c are correct
What are the adaptations of respiratory system?The respiratory system helps in exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the body.This exchange of gases takes place in the alveoli of lungs.Oxygen moves from lungs into the blood and carbon dioxide moves from the blood into alveoli of lungs where it is eventually exhaled into the atmosphere.The alveoli have several adaptations for exchange of gases.These adaptations include having a large surface area, moist surface, extensive blood supply, thin, permeable walls and high pressure gradient of gases.For rapid diffusion of gases, a very thin wall of epithelium is required between the alveoli and the surrounding capillaries such as simple squamous epithelium.Learn more about respiration here:
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N monod's experiment, the b-galactosidase enzyme appeared almost immediately when lactose was added to a growing culture. which explanation is consistent with this finding?
In this experiment of Monod's the b-galactosidase enzyme appeared almost immediately when lactose was added to growing culture in the presence of lactose activates a pre-existing , but inactive , b-galactosidase.
Monod's experiment with the E.coli to see if when exposed to sugars, those cells always produced new enzymes or if instead they had enzymes that rearranged themselves. According to this - the set of genes that are transcribed in the prokaryotes are under the control of operons.
An enzymes b- gaalactosidase cleaves the disaccharide lactose by which it produce the galactose and glucose which then ultimately enter in process of glycolysis. Also causes transgalactosylation reaction of lactose to allolactose.
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Genital warts are difficult to treat effectively because Group of answer choices they grow into large clusters on most infected individuals. available treatments do not eradicate the virus. the incubation period is very short. the bacterium that causes them is resistant to most antibiotics.
The correct answer to this question is that available treatments do not eradicate the virus.
Genital wart is a viral infection and a sexually transmitted disease. The virus which causes this disease is called HPV(Human Papillomavirus). In the current day scenario, no permanent cure is available for this disease. They disappear all on their own and then return.
Doctors recommend temporary treatments like topical creams(such as Imiquimod), cryotherapy, electrodesiccation(efficiency 94%), and laser treatment to treat genital warts. With these treatments, warts fell from the infected area after they again return after some weeks or sometimes after a year. These treatments also have their side effects.
Hence, there is no permanent solution or cure for this disease.
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A researcher has sequenced a gene that is present in two alleles. She has a mixture of both alleles and clones them into e. Coli using plasmids that contain the lacz gene. She is interested in one particular allele that is indicated in a disease. Using media containing x-gal, how can she select those colonies that have her allele of interest?.
She will have to sequence the plasmids of the white colonies before knowing which allele it contains.
What are plasmids?A plasmid is a tiny, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that differs from chromosomal DNA in a cell. Plasmids are naturally found in bacterial cells and in certain eukaryotes. plasmid genes frequently confer genetic benefits to bacteria, such as antibiotic resistance. RNA plasmids are uncommon, and the majority of them are poorly understood. Plants, fungi, and even mammals have provided examples. Linear RNA plasmids are found in some strains of the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Similar RNA plasmids have been discovered in the mitochondria of various maize plant types.To learn more about plasmids from the given link
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I need an answer as soon as possible please!! will mark as brainliest
Answer:
Yes! the given evidence supports theory.
Explanation:
Greetings !
DNA base pair. Under normal circumstances, the nitrogen-containing bases adenine (A) and thymine (T) pair together known as purines, , and cytosine (C) and guanine (G) pair together known as pyrimidines . The binding of these base pairs forms the structure of DNA.
Thus, in the above diagram it shows the purely shows the proportionality.
A ____________ is composed of a five-carbon sugar that is attached to a ____________ and a nitrogen-containing base.
A nucleotide is composed of a five-carbon sugar that is attached to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing base.
Deoxyribose sugars connected to phosphate groups make up the DNA backbone. Chains are formed by the phosphodiester bonds connecting these units. By forming hydrogen bonds with the complementary base pairs of nitrogenous bases, which are attached to the sugars of these groups, DNA strands are joined together.
The monomers that make up nucleic acids are called nucleotides. They are made up of a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and a five-carbon sugar. A free hydroxyl group on the 3' carbon of the following nucleotide forms an ester link with the phosphate group connected to the 5' carbon of the sugar on the first nucleotide.
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Why do normal fluctuations in blood oxygen levels have little influence on respiratory control?
fluctuations in blood oxygen levels have little influence on the respiratory control center
Only 33% of the participants had increased RR when their oxygen saturation was under 90%. Conclusions: Respiratory control measurements do not consistently detect desaturation and have a poor correlation with oxygen saturation measurements. Patients with low SaO2 don't typically have higher RR.
The medulla oblongata contains the respiratory control center, which regulates breathing on a minute-by-minute basis. Respiratory rhythm is not produced by a homogeneous population of pacemaker cells, unlike the cardiac system.
The dorsal respiratory group is located in the nucleus tractus solitarius, the ventral respiratory group is located in the medulla, and the pontine respiratory group is located in the pons. These three separate neuronal groups make up the respiratory control center.
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Which of the following would NOT conserve energy from fossil fuels? *
Oturning down the heat in the winter
Owalking to places
O using a gas fireplace for heat
Obiking to aces
Helppp
Answer:
C using gas for heat
Explanation:
only thing that uses fossil fuels
The structural layer of the earth that flows because it is hot and under extreme pressure is what?
The hormone _____ stimulates the storage of triglycerides during times of energy excess.
The hormone insulin stimulates the storage of triglycerides during times of energy excess.
Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets encoded in humans by the INS gene. It is considered to be the main anabolic hormone of the body.
It regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and protein by promoting the absorption of glucose from the blood into liver, fat and skeletal muscle cells. In these tissues the absorbed glucose is converted into either glycogen via glycogenesis or fats (triglycerides) via lipogenesis, or, in the case of the liver, into both.
Glucose production and secretion by the liver is strongly inhibited by high concentrations of insulin in the blood. Circulating insulin also affects the synthesis of proteins in a wide variety of tissues. It is therefore an anabolic hormone, promoting the conversion of small molecules in the blood into large molecules inside the cells. Low insulin levels in the blood have the opposite effect by promoting widespread catabolism, especially of reserve body fat.
Full question :
Q. The hormone ___________ stimulates the storage of triglycerides during times of energy excess, such as after a meal, by causing adipocytes, and to a lesser extent skeletal muscle, to take up glucose and fatty acids from the blood.
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A ________ molecule is a glycoprotein used to identify and distinguish white blood cells.
A cluster of differentiation molecule is a glycoprotein used to identify and distinguish white blood cells.
The cluster of differentiation (CD) classification refers to proteins found on the surface of cells. Each unique surface molecule is assigned a different number, which allows cell phenotypes to be identified. These cell surface molecules of leukocytes are routinely detected with anti-leukocyte monoclonal antibodies. Clusters of antigens on the surface of leukocytes can be designated by their reactions with monoclonal antibodies.CD molecules are surface molecules expressed on cells of the immune system that play key roles in immune cell-cell communication and sensing the microenvironment.
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The coding sequence in the dna of __________ is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by noncoding sequences.
a. bacteria
b. plants
c. most insects
d. mammals
Option (A) Bacteria is the correct answer.
The coding sequence in the DNA of bacteria is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by non-coding sequences.
How are coding sequences in the DNA of bacteria?The segments in the genome known as non-coding sequences don't encode for any proteins or amino acids.
These sequences either have structurally significant functions in telomeres or satellite DNA, play functional roles in controlling gene expression, or are intervening sequences known as introns.
Although bacteria have non-coding DNA sequences, they are quite a few in comparison to eukaryotic cells.
Non-coding sections make up only 12 percent of the bacterial genome, as opposed to 98 percent in eukaryotes.
The great majority of known bacterial ncRNAs are encoded from intergenic regions, where, like protein-coding genes, their production is regulated by promoter and terminator elements.
Therefore, the coding sequence in the DNA of bacteria is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by non-coding sequences.
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PLEASE HELP:
Read the scenario.
An ecologist was studying freshwater wetlands across the
southeastern United States. While studying one wetland, the
ecologist noticed that native wetland shrubs and trees were
dying. The ecologist also observed that young shrubs and trees
were stunted in growth and very sparse. At the same time, the
ecologist counted new growth in an invasive reed. The ecologist
wondered why so many native plants were dying.
By reading surveys of the surrounding land, the ecologist
learned that the freshwater wetland bordered a saltmarsh along
the coast. The ecologist also learned that the invasive reed
observed intruding into the wetland was very common in the
nearby saltmarsh. Geological surveys also revealed a gradual
increase in sea level along the coastline and an increase in
salinity in the soil.
Which question most closely relates to the ecologist's
observations and collected data?
A. What is the average age of trees in the freshwater
wetland?
B. How many species of fish live in the freshwater
wetland?
C. Are the wetland trees and shrubs dying due to an
increase in soil salinity?
D. What kinds of wildlife live in the freshwater wetland
compared to the saltmarsh?
Answer:
obviously C.
there is no description for other questions.
The question will be "Are the wetland trees and shrubs dying due to an increase in soil salinity?" The correct option is C.
What are wetlands?Wetlands are places where water covers the soil or is present at or close to the soil's surface all year long or intermittently throughout the year, including during the growing season.
A wetland is a unique environment that experiences seasonal or persistent flooding or saturation by water (for weeks or months).
While conducting research on freshwater wetlands in the Southeast of the United States, an ecologist. The ecologist saw withering native wetland plants and trees while researching one particular wetland.
Are the marsh trees and shrubs dying because the soil is becoming more salinized? is the query that best connects to the ecologist's observations and data.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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When an ammunition malfunction occurs, who is responsible for determining if the ammunition can be moved safely?
________ is a critical abiotic factor that contributes to plant growth in savanna ecosystems.
Fire is a critical abiotic factor that contributes to plant growth in savanna ecosystems.
An abiotic factor is a non-living part of an ecosystem that shapes its environment. In a terrestrial ecosystem, examples might include water, light, fire, radiation, temperature, humidity, atmosphere, acidity, and soil.
A savanna is a mixed woodland-grassland (i.e. grassy woodland) ecosystem characterized by the trees being sufficiently widely spaced so that the canopy does not close. The open canopy allows sufficient light to reach the ground to support an unbroken herbaceous layer consisting primarily of grasses. The abiotic, or non-living, factors that affect an ecosystem include the local temperature, light intensity, geology and presence of pollutants.
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Neurons in the hypothalamus regulate the activity of secretory cells in the anterior pituitary gland by:________
Neurons in the hypothalamus regulate the activity of secretory cells in the anterior pituitary gland by releasing hormones. Pituitary gland basically store the hormones which is produce by the hypothalamus.
Hypothalamus connect the nervous and endocrine systems by way of the pituitary gland. Both are connected directly to the pituitary gland by a thin stalk which is called infundibulum.
Its main function is to secrete releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones that stimulate the production of hormones in the anterior pituitary. FSH and LH both are produce and secret gonadotropins which regulated by the hypothalami releasing hormone, GnRH. These are the releasing hormones which control the release of another hormone.
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Anna read a magazine article about Alaskan ice storms. Anna's friend Sam asked her what the article was about, and she explained the article's main points. What active reading strategy did Anna use?
A. Summarizing
B. Drawing inferences
C. Making predictions
D. Making mental images
When a person has down syndrome, he or she has an extra chromosome 21. therefore, down syndrome is a kind of __________ and results from __________.
When a person has down syndrome, he or she has an extra chromosome 21. therefore, down syndrome is a kind of "aneuploidy" and results from "non-dis-junction of chromosome 21 during meiosis I".
What is down syndrome?When chromosome 21 is fully or partially duplicated, Down syndrome is present.
The cause of down syndrome is-
Every cell within the human body has a nucleus, which houses the genes that store genetic material. All of our inherited qualities are encoded by genes, which are arranged along rod-like structures known as chromosomes. Each cell typically has 23 chromosome pairs in its nucleus, half of which inherited out of each parent.Some characteristics of down syndrome are-
This extra genetic material changes the development course and results in the Down syndrome-related traits. Low muscle tone, short stature, upward-slanted eyes, as well as a single deep crease in the middle of the palm are a few of the physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome, while each person with the condition is unique and may not have any of these characteristics at all.To know more about down syndrome, here
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In conclusion, mention three values you have acquired through
Some of the values that a student can acquire through education are:
EmpathyCare EqualityIntegrityHonesty, etc.What are Values?This refers to the degree of importance of a thing or event that is in line with the ethics and belief system of a person that guides his interaction with others.
Hence, we can see that although your question is incomplete, a general overview is given to help you better understand the concept of values and the importance of education.
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A cross among monohybrids is a ____ cross.
Answer:
A cross among monohybrids is called a monohybrid cross
In pcr, an instrument is used to increase and decrease the temperature at set intervals in order to:________.
In order to generate several copies of the desired DNA sequence, the PCR procedure includes repeatedly heating and cooling the reaction through a series of temperature variations.
A partial match between the primer and the template will be stable enough at lower temperatures, allowing for more widespread amplification. Your specificity will increase as the temperature rises because longer suitable sequences are needed for the primer to bind to.In order to generate several copies of the desired DNA sequence, the PCR procedure includes repeatedly heating and cooling the reaction through a series of temperature variations.One significant benefit of PCR is the ability to amplify target sequences from a single copy of the starting material, even when the template is tainted with inhibitors and degraded.learn more about PCR here: https://brainly.com/question/7177771
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How many African Americans are carriers of the sickle-cell allele?
1 in 100
1 in 11
1 in 500
1 in 50
Answer:
Sickle cell trait is an inherited blood disorder that affects 1 million to 3 million Americans and 8 to 10 percent of African Americans.
Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder that is carried by 1 in 500 African Americans, according to the National Institute of Health (NIH).
Sickle cell anemia occurs due to mutation in the beta chain of the hemoglobin molecule, where the glutamic acid at the 6th position of chromosome 11 is substituted by valine.
Having a sickle cell trait cannot cause disorder because the person with the sickle cell trait only contains one allele containing this mutation. Contrary to this, a patient with Sickle cell anemia has a mutation in both alleles.
The African populations were most prone to malaria, and sickle cell trait evolved as a mechanism of defense against malaria. Having the Sickle cell trait helps in fighting the malarial pathogen.
Apart from the African American population, people having ancestors from Sub-Saharan, South Asian, Middle Eastern, Central, and South American origin are also prone to contain the Sickle cell trait.
This concludes that people of African American origin are prone to inherit the sickle cell trait from their ancestors, and about 1 in every 500 people will be a carrier of this allele.
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In order, from the earliest to the most recent?
a. evolution of eukaryotic cells
b. origin of prokaryotic cells
c. evolution of multicellular organisms
d. plants and fungi colonize land
b. origin of prokaryotic cells
a. evolution of eukaryotic cells
c. evolution of multicellular organisms
d. plants and fungi colonize land
Prokaryotes are primitive cells without nuclei that were the first to evolve. Their DNA is round. Circular DNA is found in the mitochondrion and chlorophyll of eukaryotes as well, which shows that prokaryotes evolved first.According to fossil evidence, eukaryotes diverged from prokaryotes between 1.5 and 2 billion years ago. Studies of mitochondria and chloroplasts, which are assumed to have evolved from bacteria residing in big cells, are particularly helpful in supporting the idea that eukaryotic cells originated from an endosymbiotic association of prokaryotes.Eukaryotic cells' evolution is explained by the endosymbiotic hypothesis. Both the large and small cells profited from their symbiotic interaction. Some of the small cells were able to use the energy from the waste products of the large cells. They provided energy for more than just themselves.learn more about prokaryotic here: https://brainly.com/question/5716507
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2. Imagine that a stream of water becomes heavily polluted over time. Predict how you think the following properties would change: • pH • water hardness • nitrate and ammonia levels
Pollution is a degradation of the environment that causes a harmful effect on the environment and on the living beings that develop there. Pollution can be caused by humans, but also due to natural processes. There are different types of pollution, such as atmospheric, water, soil, sound and visual.
What is the importance of pH in aquatic life?pH is important because it sets the stage for how easily nutrients are available (which can lead to algal blooms) and how easily things like heavy metals dissolve in water (creating toxicity to aquatic life).
How does water hardness affect the environment?The most important impact of hardness on fish and other aquatic life appears to be the affect the presence of these ions has on the other more toxic metals
What are the levels of nitrate and ammonia?Ammonium nitrate is used in fertigated crops, a fertilization technique in which the fertilizer is diluted in drip irrigation water. Fertilizers used in agriculture are made up of ammonium nitrate, the same substance that caused the massive explosion in Beirut, Lebanon, last week.
With this information, we can conclude that Rivers are polluted by the contamination of organic waste, including human and animal excreta, and agricultural waste resulting from plant decomposition. With the increase in population and the emergence of industrial activity, the pollution of rivers and lakes did not cease to increase.
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Answer:
PH: It will become less acidic
water hardness: It will become more harder
nitrate and ammonia levels: They will both increase
Explanation:
Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because?
Because the virus causes severe tissue necrosis and inflammation, secondary bacterial infections happen often during influenza outbreaks.
What are Secondary infections?
There are several ways that a primary infection can increase susceptibility to disease, leading to a secondary infection.
A secondary infection is one that develops during or following the treatment for a primary illness. It has been determined that a secondary bacterial infection affects up to 75% of people who acquire pneumonia after contracting the flu.
The prevalence of influenza and related secondary bacterial illnesses can be decreased by using infection prevention techniques. The best method to prevent this is to be vaccinated against the flu every year and practice proper hygiene, like frequent, thorough handwashing.
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Two venomous snakes, originated on different islands, having never intersected with each other. how would you best describe the trait of venom?
Represents a mutation and venoms are enzymes or proteins that started would best describe the trait of venom.
What about trait of venom?For a property like venom, the phenotype is mostly the result of extremely specialised interactions between gene products and a target organism.Advanced snakes have homologous but varied venom glands, especially those of non-front-fanged species.At least four major toxin groups, including necrotoxins and cytotoxins, which kill cells, neurotoxins, which impact neurological systems, myotoxins, which harm muscles, and hemotoxins, which interfere with blood coagulation, work in venoms to cause death. Each year, tens of thousands of people die as a result of venomous animals.Fire and sound are the Venom symbiote's two main vulnerabilities. The symbiote writhes in agony in response to loud stimuli. In the beginning, Peter Parker did it to rid himself of the symbiote.
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Moving your finger across a textured surface can produce vibrations that are interpreted as texture. These vibrations are defined as?
Moving your finger across a textured surface can produce vibrations that are interpreted as texture. These vibrations are defined as temporal cues.
Temporal envelope (ENV) or temporal cues are changes in the amplitude and frequency of sound perceived by humans over time. These temporal changes are responsible for several aspects of auditory perception, including loudness, pitch and timbre perception and spatial hearing.
Complex sounds such as speech or music are decomposed by the peripheral auditory system of humans into narrow frequency bands. The resulting narrow-band signals convey information at different time scales ranging from less than one millisecond to hundreds of milliseconds. A dichotomy between slow "temporal envelope" cues and faster "temporal fine structure" cues has been proposed to study several aspects of auditory perception (e.g., loudness, pitch and timbre perception, auditory scene analysis, sound localization) at two distinct time scales in each frequency band.
Over the last decades, a wealth of psychophysical, electrophysiological and computational studies based on this envelope/fine-structure dichotomy have examined the role of these temporal cues in sound identification and communication, how these temporal cues are processed by the peripheral and central auditory system, and the effects of aging and cochlear damage on temporal auditory processing.
Although the envelope/fine-structure dichotomy has been debated and questions remain as to how temporal fine structure cues are actually encoded in the auditory system, these studies have led to a range of applications in various fields including speech and audio processing, clinical audiology and rehabilitation of sensorineural hearing loss via hearing aids or cochlear implants.
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Internal and external information is brought to the brain in the process of _____.
Internal and external information is brought to the brain in the process of consciousness.
A brain function brought about by neural mechanisms is consciousness. The three main components of consciousness are representation by firing patterns in neuronal groups, binding of these representations into semantic pointers, and competition amongst semantic pointers.
Brain matter creates our consciousness and our capacity for awareness and thought through the use of electromagnetic radiation. In addition to processing sensory and motor information, the cerebral cortex also facilitates consciousness, or our capacity to think about ourselves and the outside world.
Therefore, Internal and external information is brought to the brain in the process of consciousness.
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In the onpg and mug test for fecal coliforms, a sample that is positive for e. coli will be:_________.
In the ONPG and mug test for fecal coliforms, a sample that is positive for e. coliforms will be positive for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light
A colorimetric and spectrophotometric substrate for detecting -galactosidase activity is ortho-Nitrophenyl—galactoside (ONPG). Normally, this substance is colorless. On the other hand, if -galactosidase is present, it hydrolyzes the ONPG molecule into ortho-nitrophenol and galactose.
If the body has beta-galactosidase, it will split the beta-galactoside link and release the yellow chemical o-nitrophenol. This denotes a successful test. ☰ The test organism is collected from a medium with a high lactose concentration when using the disc method. The enzyme may break down ONPG, a lactose analog, to form the O-nitrophenol end product, which has a yellow tint. You must be sure to grow this organism on media rich in lactose because this enzyme can only be produced in the presence of the lactose substrate.
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Which microorganism is known for surviving in the phagolysosome to avoid host cell detection?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is known for surviving in the phagolysosome to avoid host cell detection. Thus, option B is correct.
What is phagolysosome?A phagolysosome is a type of cytoplasmic body which is an union of phagosome and a lysosome. The interior is highly acidic and contain hydrolytic enzymes.
These enzymes digest and destroy the harmful microorganisms.
The mechanism of formation of Phagolysosome by phagocytosis is an immunological functions.
Although phagolysosome and phagosomes are membrane bound vesicles, primary difference is that phagolysosome is formed by the fusion of a phagosome with a lysosome where as phagosome is formed around the particles engulfed by a phagocytic cell.
Hence, option B is correct.
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Your question was incomplete. Hence the probable question was
Which microorganism is known for surviving in the phagolysosome to avoid host cell detection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycoplasma sp.
D. micrococcus luteus