What is the only cpr performance monitor typically available for measuring a physiologic end point?

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Answer 1

The only CPR performance monitor typically available for measuring a physiologic endpoint is the end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) or invasive hemodynamic data.

The main function of physiological endpoints is to respond to environmental stressors and can serve as important tools in ecotoxicology.

What is a Health Monitor?

This refers to the medical tools or machines that are used to observe and view the bodily functions of a human body or mammal.

Hence, we can see that The main function of physiological endpoints is to respond to environmental stressors and can serve as important tools in ecotoxicology.

Therefore, the only CPR performance monitor typically available for measuring a physiologic endpoint is end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) or invasive hemodynamic data.

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Related Questions

Some individuals inherit an xx chromosome pattern but are exposed prenatally to drugs that are converted to male hormones once in the body. these individuals are likely to?

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Individuals inherit an xx chromosome pattern but are exposed prenatally to drugs that are converted to male hormones once in the body have masculinized genitalia and behave in more 'masculine ways'.

Person normally has one pair of sex chromosomes in each cell. The Y chromosome is present in males, who have one X and one Y chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes. Identifying genes on each chromosome is an active area of genetic research.

In general Gender schema theory proposes that children learn schemes related to gender from their interactions with other children and adults, as well as from TV program and films. Such schema or stereotypes have the function of organizing and structuring other information that is presented to children.

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Adaptation to terrestrial life required major evolutionary changes. The change from gill breathing to lung breathing was accompanied by important changes in the ____________________________. manufacture of blood cells association of blood and interstitial fluid cardiovascular system reproductive system

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The correct answer is 'association of blood and interstitial fluid.'

The cardiovascular system is made up of the heart, blood vessels, and blood. Its primary function is to transport nutrient- and oxygen-rich blood to all parts of the body while returning deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Abnormalities or damage to any one or all of the cardiovascular system's components may result in serious health problems. Common diseases that can affect the cardiovascular system include coronary artery disease, heart attacks, excessive blood pressure, and stroke. The circulatory system moves blood from the heart to the lungs where it is oxygenated. The heart pumps oxygenated blood through the arteries to the rest of the body. Veins bring oxygen-depleted blood back to the heart to restart circulation.

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The antifungals known as polyenes interact with ________, a lipid unique to fungus membranes.

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The antifungals known as polyenes interact with ergosterol, a lipid unique to fungus membranes.

What is fungus membrane?

The fungus's homeostatic regulation depends on the sterol-, sphingolipid-, and glycerophospholipid-rich fungal membrane. Azoles impair the normal stability of the fungal membrane by inhibiting the enzyme lanosterol-14-demethylase (Erg11 or CYP51), which converts lanosterol to ergosterol. Unfortunately, the widespread use of these drugs has resulted in the development of resistance mechanisms, including the activation of efflux pumps, the development of biofilms, and the overexpression or active site mutation of CYP51. The creation of novel inhibitors able to overcome the resistance was made possible by the crystal structures of mutant CYP51 enzymes from Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Candida albicans in association with azoles.

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Pathogens transmitted by means of cuts or punctures are an example of _______ transmission.

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Answer:

Parenteral Transmission

What effect does stimulating the vagus nerve have on heart rate? from which subdivision of the autonomic nervous system (ans) does the vagus nerve carry motor fibers?

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The sympathetic side increases alertness, energy, blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing rate. The parasympathetic side, which the vagus nerve is heavily involved in, decreases alertness, blood pressure, and heart rate, and helps with calmness, relaxation, and digestion.

What happens when vagus nerve is stimulated?

Vagus nerve stimulation stabilizes aberrant electrical activity in the brain by stimulating the vagus nerve with the help of an implanted pulse generator and lead wire. Anti-seizure medications don't completely work for about one-third of epilepsy patients.

Why is vagus nerve stimulation used?

Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS) uses the vagus nerve to provide regular, gentle electrical pulses to the brain in an effort to prevent or decrease seizure activity. The procedure involves implanting a device under the skin in the left chest area.

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Which is NOT a benefit to alternative resources? *
O tend to cost less
O accessible in our own country
O do not pollute our air
Owind and solar energy are not always available

Helppp

Answers

Answer:

I think D

Explanation:

D) wind and solar energy are not always available

Explanation: answers A, B, and C are all benefits

The collection of axons that carries information between the central nervous system and the peripheral effectors is called the:__________

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axon. the collection of axons that carries information between the central nervous system and the peripheral effectors is called the: nerve. the region where the axon terminal meets its target cell is called the: synapse.

The entire complex of concentric rings and cells that surround a single central canal is called a/an?

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The entire complex of concentric rings and cells that surround a single central canal is called a/an osteon.

What is osteon?An osteoclast-rich tissue creates cylindrical vascular tunnels called osteons. They include cutting cone-shaped endosteum and pluripotent precursor cells. The cutting cone replaces the bone with osteoblast-rich tissue.The Haversian canal is surrounded by the osteon, the main structural component of compact (cortical) bone, which is made up of concentric bone layers termed lamellae.Osteons, also known as Haversian systems, are the building blocks of compact bone structure. Osteons are spherical organs made up of a mineral matrix, live osteocytes, and canaliculi that carry blood. They are positioned parallel to the bone's long axis. The structural component of compact bone are osteons. Also known as the Haversian system, osteons consist of overlapping cylinders of bone tissue called lamellae.

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Identify the letter that indicates where most nutrient and waste exchange occurs between the tissue and blood

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A indicates where most nutrient and waste exchange occurs between the tissue and blood i.e., the capillaries

In the capillaries, waste, nutrients, and gases are exchanged between the blood and tissue. Small blood arteries called capillaries create networks surrounding body cells by branching off from arterioles.In the lungs, capillaries release carbon dioxide for expiration and take oxygen from the air that has been inhaled into the bloodstream.Because capillaries are so tiny, only one blood cell can pass through them at a time. These capillaries allow nutrients and oxygen to reach the cells. Wastes from the cells can be transported to the blood through capillaries and veins.

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What is the cpt code for removal of a foreign body from the esophagus via the thoracic area?

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Cpt code 43045 is the code for removal of a foreign body from the esophagus via the thoracic area.

The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes offer doctors and health care professionals a uniform language for coding medical services and procedures to streamline reporting, increase accuracy and efficiency.

CPT codes are also used for administrative management purposes such as claims processing and developing guidelines for medical care review.

Surgical Procedures on the Esophagus

43020-43045 : Incision Procedures on the Esophagus

43100-43135 : Excision Procedures on the Esophagus

43180-43278 : Endoscopy Procedures on the Esophagus

43279-43289 : Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus

43300-43425 : Repair Procedures on the Esophagus

43450-43460 : Manipulation Procedures on the Esophagus

43496-43499 : Other Procedures on the Esophagus

Esophageal Procedures :CPT codes 39000 and 39010 describe mediastinotomy by cervical or thoracic approaches respectively with “exploration, drainage, removal of foreign body, or biopsy.”

Exploration of the surgical field is not separately reportable with another procedure performed in the surgical field.

CPT codes 39000 and 39010 shall not be reported separately for exploration of the mediastinum when performed with an esophageal procedure.

These codes may be reported separately if mediastinal drainage, removal of foreign body, or biopsy is performed.

However, these codes shall not be reported separately for removal of foreign body with CPT code 43020 (Esophagotomy, cervical approach, with removal of foreign body) or CPT code 43045 (Esophagotomy, thoracic approach, with removal of foreign body).

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What is steinbock's opinion of the case in which the infant with down's syndrome was allowed to die through passive euthanasia?

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What is steinbock's opinion of the case in which the infant with down's syndrome was allowed to die through passive euthanasia because Doctors merely withheld treatment so it was morally acceptable.

Passive euthanasia means intentionally allowing a patient die by prohibiting artificial life support such as a ventilator or feeding tube. Some ethicists distinguish between withholding life support and withdrawing life support .Steinbock believes that in a few situations it is acceptable for a doctor to intentionally terminate a patient's life. A treatment that counts as ordinary care in one situation may count as extraordinary care in a different situation. Steinbock believes that a quick death is always acceptable then a lingering one.

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Normal human cells have ________ chromosomes while gametes have ________ chromosomes.

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Answer:

Normal human cells have 46 chromosomes while gametes have 23 chromosomes.

How does a high humidity level alter the sweat evaporation process and make an individual susceptible to a heat illness?

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High humidity level alters the sweat evaporation process and make an individual susceptible to a heat illness

Evaporation is the heat loss caused by perspiration. The body loses heat mostly in this way. High relative humidity inhibits the body's primary cooling mechanism by reducing this heat loss. As a result, developing Heat Illness is more likely when there are high relative humidity levels.

A liquid transforms into a gas during evaporation. It is simple to picture when puddles of rain "vanish" on a hot day or when wet clothing dries in the sun. In these instances, the liquid water is evaporating into a gas known as water vapor rather than really dissipating. Evaporation results from heat, which is necessary to separate the water molecules from one another.

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Why did it take more generations of complete selection to reduce q from 0. 1 to 0. 01 (a 0. 09 change) compared that for a 0. 5 to 0. 1 reduction (a larger, 0. 4 change)? explain

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Zygotic selection against dominant alleles is more efficient than selection against recessive alleles. It can take fewer than 100 generations to eliminate a dominate delterious allele with an initial frequency of 0.70.

According to hardy- Weinberg equilibrium scientist have observe at-least two generation.  Allele frequencies are the same for both generations then the population is in the Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of heterogeneous individuals are equal to 2pq.

In case of 2pq equals 0.32 which means that the frequency of individuals heterozygous for this gene is equal to the 32%. Hardy- Weinberg equation is , p=the frequency of dominant allele in a population.q= frequency of recessive allele in a population.

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Which are tunics (layers) that make up the gastrointestinal wall?

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The gastrointestinal wall is composed of four layers or tunics:

MucosaSubmucosaMuscularis mucosa Serosa

The innermost tunic of the wall is known as the mucosa or mucous membrane layer. The digestive tract's lumen is lined with it. The mucosa comprises epithelium, a layer of lamina propria, a loose layer of connective tissue, and the muscularis mucosa, a thin layer of smooth muscle.

The mucosa is surrounded by a substantial layer of loose connective tissue known as the submucosa. Blood arteries, lymphatic vessels, and neurons are also present in this stratum. The adventitia is a connective tissue that makes up the digestive tract's outermost layer above the diaphragm. It is referred to as serosa below the diaphragm.

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What are the three general rules for genes that follow a mendelian pattern of inheritance?

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X-linked, autosomal dominant, and recessive are the three general rules for genes that follow a mendelian pattern of inheritance

When two alleles of a single gene, one of which may be entirely dominant over the other, are present, simple (or Mendelian) inheritance refers to the transmission of features that are governed by that gene. Whether simple features are governed by genes on autosomes or by genes on sex chromosomes determines the pattern of inheritance.The laws of dominance, segregation, and independent assortment are among Mendel's laws of inheritance. According to the law of segregation, each person has two alleles, but only one of them is passed on to the next generation.Three basic principles define mendelian inheritance: Genes are passed down from generation to generation unchanged, with the exception of exceptional cases; each gene follows Mendel's law.

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Which shows the correct order of processes for fungi to reproduce sexually? a fungus that is genetically identical to the parent fungus is produced, a spore forms, and hyphae exchange genetic material. a spore forms, a genetically unique fungus is produced, and hyphae exchange genetic material. hyphae exchange genetic material, a spore forms, and the spore grows into a genetically unique fungus. a spore forms, hyphae exchange genetic material, and a fungus that is genetically identical to the parent fungus grows.

Answers

The right order for the fungi to reproduce sexually is:

hyphae exchange genetic material, a spore forms, and the spore grows into a genetically unique fungus.

What is fungus?Any member of the eukaryotic group of organisms, which also includes the more well-known mushrooms and microbes like yeast and mold, is referred to as a fungus.Some of the examples for Fungi are rusts, yeasts, molds, stinkhorns, truffles, mushroomsWhere can you find fungi?Fungi can be incredibly sophisticated multicellular organisms or single-celled critters. They can be found in almost any location, but the majority of them prefer to dwell on land, primarily in soil or on plant matter, as opposed to the sea or fresh water.Reproduction in Fungus:Most fungi have sexual and asexual reproduction abilities.This enables them to adapt to environmental changes. When the environment is stable, they can spread swiftly through asexual reproduction.Asexual reproduction in fungi:fragmentation Hyphae fragments can sprout new colonies. A fungal mycelium fragments as it splits into pieces, with each piece developing into a new mycelium.buddingMost yeasts and some filamentous fungi engage in budding, which is an additional asexual reproduction strategy. This process results in the development of a bud, whose cytoplasm is continuous with that of the parent cell, on the surface of either the yeast cell or the hypha.producing spores.The majority of fungi reproduce by producing spores, which can endure harsh conditions including extreme cold and a lack of water. Depending on the species and environmental factors, asexual and sexual meiotic spores can both be formed during mitosis. A diploid and haploid stage coexist in the majority of fungi's life cycles.Sexual reproduction in fungi:

Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are the three successive steps of sexual reproduction in fungi.

Plasmogamy:

Plasmogamy unites two compatible haploid nuclei by joining two protoplasts, or the contents of two cells.

Karyogamy: These haploid nuclei fuse together during karyogamy to form a diploid nucleus (i.e., a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent). The zygote is the name for the cell created during karyogamy. In the majority of fungus, the sole diploid cell throughout the whole life cycle is the zygote.Meiosis:Meiosis (reduced division) starts the haploid phase, which generates the gametes, and restores the haploid amount of chromosomes. With the exception of the zygote, all structures in the bulk of fungi are haploid. At the time of zygote formation, nuclear fusion occurs, and meiosis immediately follows.

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Claire had a heavy breakfast early in the morning. then she went to the gym to exercise. after the gym, claire went to class. while exercising, the body requires a continuous supply of energy and uses up blood sugar at a faster rate. how will hormones maintain the sugar balance in the body from breakfast until claire has lunch? high blood sugar secretion of glucagon secretion of insulin glycogen breaks down to glucose

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Following breakfast, pancreas, high blood sugar, insulin secretion, and liver cells consuming sugar.Reduced blood sugar, pancreatic, glycogen decomposes to glucose during secretion of glucagon.

What is secreted in response to high blood sugar?

Diabetes Basics: The pancreas' islet cells secrete the hormones insulin and glucagon. Both of them are secreted in different directions in response to blood sugar levels. The beta cells of the pancreas, an islet cell type, ordinarily release insulin.

How does high blood sugar affect the body?

The blood vessels that provide blood to essential organs can be damaged by hyperglycemia, which raises the risk of kidney disease, heart disease, stroke, visual issues, and nerve problems.

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Answer:A

Explanation:

A protein that interferes with the ability of a virus to replicate inside a host cell is?

Answers

Interferon is the protein which interferes with the ability of a virus to be able to replicate inside a host's cell.

Interferon is a type of a protein which is secreted by the host in response to the viruses which the body encounters. They belong to a class of proteins which are known as cytokines.

When a cell gets infected with virus, it releases interferons. The interferons are able to activate the cells of the immune system like macrophages and the natural killer cells This causes the nearby cells to increase their anti-viral defenses. This helps in the protection of unaffected cells from viral infection.

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The final product of glycolysis is pyruvate. Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to?

Answers

Hi there,

I hope you and your family are staying safe and healthy!

The answer is: Acetyl - CoA

So basically Glycolysis is the process by which glucose is broken down within the cytoplasm of a cell to form pyruvate. Then under aerobic conditions, pyruvate can diffuse into Mitochondria and then convert to Acetyl-CoA as aerobic metabolism continue.

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Meiosis is the process by which cells are produced from a cell that was originally diploid. True or false?.

Answers

True; meiosis is the process by which cells are produced from a cell that was originally diploid.

What is meiosis?

The production of offspring by sexual reproduction includes the fusion of two gametes, each with a complete haploid set of chromosomes. Gametes are formed from specialised diploid cells. This specialised kind of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half results in the production of haploid daughter cells. This kind of division is called meiosis. Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilisation restores the diploid phase. Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis in plants and animals. This leads to the formation of haploid gametes.

The key features of meiosis are as follows:

Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA replication.Meiosis I is initiated after the parental chromosomes have replicated to produce identical sister chromatids at the S phase. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them. Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis II.

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Cells will usually divide if they receive the proper signal at a checkpoint in which phase of the cell cycle?

Answers

Answer:

M phase

Explanation:

While there are many checkpoints within the cell cycle, the specific checkpoint you are referring to most likely takes place in the M (mitosis) phase.

Before the M phase (which includes the G1, S, and G2 phases), the cell grows, the number of organelles increases, and DNA replicates. After the G2 phase, the M phase begins. At the beginning of this phase, the DNA condenses, lines up in the center of the cell, attaches to spindle fibers, and is pulled to opposite ends of the cell. If this checkpoint receives the proper signal, the actual division of the cell will occur.

The genetic recombination of ________ caused massive, widespread epidemics that affected the global human population several times in the twentieth century.

Answers

The genetic recombination of human influenza A caused massive, widespread epidemics that affected the global human population several times in the twentieth century.

What is influenza ?

Influenza is a disease caused by virus which is contagious.It is different from a normal cold as it shows severe symptoms than flu.

Influenza is caused by influenza virus and people get infected when they breathe in tiny airborne droplets from the cough or sneezes of infected person.

Outbreaks of influenza A virus occurred in twentieth century.During 1918 influenza pandemic was the most dangerous pandemic.

Therefore, the genetic recombination of human influenza A caused massive, widespread epidemics that affected the global human population several times in the twentieth century.

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In animal cells, glycolysis occurs in the __________.
a, nucleus.
b. inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. cytosol.
d. mitochondrial matrix.
e. outer mitochondrial membrane.

Answers

the answer is c. cytosine

The laboratory analysis of a blood or urine sample to determine how much of a certain nutrient is present in the sample is an example of a(n)?

Answers

Osmolality tests is performed to determine the level of a certain nutrient present in the blood and urine.

What is osmolality test?

Osmolality tests measure the level of certain substances in blood, urine, or stool.

The level of glucose(sugar), urea( waste product made in the liver), sodium, potassium, and chloride are measured in osmolality test.

Osmolality test is also performed to check the balance between water and certain chemicals in blood.

Osmolality test also done to diagnose dehydration .

Therefore,osmolality test is done to determine the level of a certain nutrient in blood or urine sample.

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The enzyme produced in the kidneys that may play a role in essential hypertension by promoting vasoconstriction is called ___________.

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Answer:

the answer is Renin

Explanation:

The enzyme produced in the kidneys that may play a role in essential hypertension by promoting vasoconstriction is called renin.

Renin is an enzyme released by specialized cells in the kidneys called juxtaglomerular cells. It plays a critical role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance.

It acts on a protein called angiotensinogen, which is produced by the liver and released into the bloodstream. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II by the action of the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor.

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What structure in the male reproductive system produces most of the seminal fluid?

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Seminal vesicles are the structures of the male reproductive system that produce most of the seminal fluid.

What are seminal vesicles?

Seminal vesicles are a part of the male reproductive system. They are present in a pair and are attached to the vas deference near the bladder.

They are also called seminal glands even though they are made of both glandular tissues and muscular tissues. They produce the seminal fluid which eventually forms the semen when combined with sperms.

The seminal fluid prepared by these vesicles makes up about 80% of the total volume of semen. It contains various components which help the sperms survive and travel through the vagina for fertilization.

Therefore, most of the seminal fluid in the male reproductive system is produced by the seminal vesicles.

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What five factors determine the amount of runoff in an area?

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The quantity of rain, vegetation, soil type, landform, and human use of the land are the five key determinants of runoff in a region.

What is Runoff?

Runoff occurs when there is more water than the land can absorb. The extra liquid drains into surrounding creeks, streams, or ponds after flowing across the land's surface. Both natural processes and human activities can produce runoff.Snowmelt is the most well-known kind of natural runoff. Heavy snowfalls that mountains cannot absorb result in runoff that eventually forms streams, rivers, and lakes. Rain, snow, and glaciers all play a part in this organic discharge.Additionally, runoff happens naturally as soil erodes and is moved to different bodies of water. Even harmful substances are carried into streams by natural events like volcanic eruptions. Volcanic gases eventually make their way back into the water or land as precipitation.Large urban, suburban, or rural regions can all be nonpoint sources of runoff. In some locations, irrigation and rains both wash chemicals into nearby streams. Lawn fertiliser, vehicle exhaust, and even gasoline from a spilled car are examples of nonpoint source runoff. As fertilizers and pesticides are discharged into bodies of water during irrigation and rain, farms represent a significant nonpoint source of runoff.Runoff is accelerated by impervious surfaces or surfaces that cannot absorb water. Impervious surfaces include parking lots, walkways, and roads. Materials as various as car-washing soaps, trash, and gas station spill end up in a runoff.

The quantity of rain, vegetation, soil type, landform, and human use of the land are the five key determinants of runoff in a region.

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The rainfall duration, topography of storm movement, soil ,land use are the determining factor of runoff.

What is Runoff?

Runoff occurs when the water is more as comparative to land for absorption.

Factors of Runoff:

1)The rainfall duration is directly proportional to runoff ,more the duration of rainfall more will be runoff.

2) Runoff will be more at smooth surface as compare to rough surface.

3) The land pattern have significant role in affection on runoff.The surface full of grass there will be more absorption so,less runoff.

4)Type of soil also effects the runoff ,some soils have less ability to absorb water but some have more ability.

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A cut on a person fingers becomes contaminated with the bacterium staphylococcus aureus. the first response by the immune system consists of the activity of:_____.

Answers

The first response by the immune system consists of the activity of innate immune response.

What is the first response of the immune system?

The first set of responses consist of the innate immune response because the innate system used the recognition molecules that have large number of cells. This system act quickly after an invading pathogen or toxin enter in your body which leads to the initial host response. The innate immune system triggers an acute inflammatory response to control the infection.

So we can conclude that the first response by the immune system consists of the activity of innate immune response.

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From where can conservation geneticists collect dna samples to monitor endangered species?

Answers

DNA collecting samples helping species recover often depend, which can reveal valuable information about details ranging from inbreeding and population history to natural selection.

To measure the genetic diversity of particular gene, scientist look at how many different versions of it are present in a population.Use of molecular marker for identification of endangered species offer promise of conservation biology.

Conservation genetics is the application of genetics to understanding the decreasing population and species extincts.By effective managing these ecosystem we can help preserve threatens and endangered. It helps in determine evolutionary context of endangered species and enables the development of better management and strategies for endangered species.

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Ebony is a caseworker at a community healthcare clinic. She is dedicated to serving her clients and loves coming into work every day. This week, Ebony was assigned a young homeless man who she has met briefly on several occasions at the clinic and who is in need of referral services. Ebony decided to accept a different patient rather than the homeless man because she feels uncomfortable when he is near her. Reflect again on the scenario. Is this an example of individual OR institutional discrimination? Explain your answer. Box a has a volume of 32 cubic meters. box b is similar to box a. to create box b, box a's dimensions were tripled. what is the volume of box b? What is the completely unconscious, irrational component of personality that seeks immediate satisfaction of instinctual urges and drives; ruled by the pleasure principle? a. Ego b. Superego c. Archetype d. Id If z = 1+ i3, what is z^5? 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Graph paper recommended***Quadrilateral MATH includes the points M(2,-4) and A(5,-2).Part A: Find coordinates for T and H such that quadrilateral MATH is a rectangle.Part B: Prove that the resulting quadrilateral is a rectangle.18 The ""duck and tilapia system and the pig deep litter system both ""recycle inputs"". what does it mean to recycle inputs? how do these systems address sustainability? ILL GIVE BRAILIEST What do you get if you cross two different species? Depending upon the species, you might end up with a grolar bear, a wolfdog, or a Savannah cat, among many others. What do these animals have in common? They're hybrids. Sometimes hybrids happen naturally in the wild, but usually, hybrids are the result of humans selectively breeding animals.Grolar bears and pizzlies are the result of crossing polar bears and grizzly bears. These hybrids were first seen in zoos, as the bears' natural habitats did not normally overlap. Recently, these hybrids have started appearing in the wild. Due to climate change, the bears' once-separate habitats are beginning to overlap. Bigger and more aggressive than their parents, grolar bears and pizzlies could pose a risk to natural habitats and humans.Wolfdogs are, as their name suggests, the result of crossing a wolf with a domestic dog. Bred for the pet trade, these hybrids do not often happen in the wild. Wolfdogs do not make good pets, however, as they can be destructive and aggressive. Many states have outlawed keeping wolfdogs because they can pose a danger to people.Savannah cats are another example of human-made hybrids that were developed to be pets. Savannahs are the result of crossing a small wildcat called a serval with a domestic housecat. They look like miniature versions of the wildcat, which is why many people like keeping them as pets. Like the wolfdog, however, Savannahs do not make ideal house pets. They can be destructive, and usually, they keep the wild nature of the serval.There are many more examples of human-made hybrid animals. Some hybrids, such as the mule, have been helpful to humans. Unfortunately, others, like the wolfdog or Savannah cat, should not have been made in the first place.According to the text, why are bear hybrids being seen in the wild? Match the terms and definitions below.1. glossary2. prefix3. root word4. suffixOiEtHthe base word without any suffixesor prefixesword beginnings that add a certainmeaning to a wordword endings that add a certainmeaninglist of words in a subject and theirdefinitions, often located in the back of atextbook84F Partly sunn