What does each star become after the main sequence stage?

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Answer 1

PERFECT QUESTION! SPACE IS WHERE ALL MY INTERESTS ARE!

Answer:

Once a star reaches the limit of it's current stage, which in this case, is the main sequence stage, it will expand and cool, resulting a Red Giant.

What are the stages in the life of a star and what happens in each?

1. Nebula

A nebula is an out-of-this-world cloud of gas (hydrogen) and dust. The nebulae are where stars are born. Nebulae come in a variety of forms. A brilliant emission nebula, like the one in Orion, shines because the gas there is powered by the stars that have already formed there. Starlight reflects on the dust particles within a nebula to form a reflection nebula. The Pleiades Cluster's nebula is an example of a mirror nebula. There are also Dark Nebula. These are thick, hydrogen-filled clouds that either fully or partially block the light from the stars behind them, such as the Horsehead Nebula in Orion.

2. Star

A star is a glowing ball of gas that generates all of its own heat and light through nuclear processes (nuclear fusion). They are made primarily of hydrogen and helium gas and are created from nebulae. The colors that correlate to the surface temperatures, which vary from red to blue-white, span from 2000 C to above 30,000 C. With masses 100 times greater than the Sun's, the brightest stars produce as much light as millions of Suns. They have a lifespan of just a million years before becoming supernova. Red dwarfs, which are just a thousandth as luminous as the Sun, are the weakest stars. A star can have a minimum mass of around 8% of the mass of the Sun, or 80 times the mass of the planet Jupiter, for nuclear processes to occur. Brown dwarfs or big planets are objects that have less mass than the critical mass and glow very weakly. A star like the Sun swells out into a red giant as it nears death, loses its outer layers as a planetarian nebula, and then contracts to become a white dwarf.

3. Red Giant

The surface of this big, brilliant star is chilly. It develops as a star like the Sun's core runs out of hydrogen fuel in its final phases of growth. The diameter of a red giant ranges from 10 to 100 times that of the sun. Despite having a surface temperature between 2000 and 3000C that is lower than that of the Sun, they are extraordinarily brilliant due to their size. Super Giants are a common name for red giants, very massive stars. These stars frequently exhibit luminosities one million times higher than the Sun and have dimensions up to 1000 times that of the Sun.

4. Red Dwarf

These are extremely tiny, dim, and cold stars that have a mass and diameter that is roughly equal to that of the Sun. They have an estimated lifespan of 100 billion years and burn very slowly. Proxima Centauri and Barnard's Star are red dwarfs.

5. White Dwarf

This tiny, blazing star is at the end of its life cycle as a star like the Sun. White dwarfs are stars that are similar in mass to the Sun but have a diameter that is just 1% as large as the Sun, or around the size of the Earth. Although a white dwarf is smaller than the Sun and has a surface temperature of 8000C or more, it has an overall brightness of little more than 1% of the Sun. The shriveled remnants of typical stars whose nuclear energy reserves have been depleted are known as white dwarfs. Due to gravitational processes, white dwarfs are composed of degenerate matter with an extremely high density; one tablespoon contains many tonnes of mass. Over a few billion years, white dwarfs cool and disappear.

6. Supernova

This is a star's cataclysmic demise, which frequently gives the star for a brief period the brilliance of 100 million suns. Supernovae often fall into two categories: - These are Type I explosions, which take place in binary star systems when gas from one star collides with a white dwarf, triggering an explosion. Type II These occur in stars that are 10 times as massive as the Sun or more, and near the conclusion of their lifetimes, they experience runaway internal nuclear reactions that result in an explosion. Black holes and neutron stars are what they leave behind. The primary source of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium is assumed to be supernovae.

Thank you,

Eddie


Related Questions

The ability of a molecule to absorb infrared radiation is measured with ir spectrometers, which report the frequency of light absorbed in units of cm¯1. which explanation best describes this unit?

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Spectrometer is a technique used to measured that how much a chemical substance absorbs light by measuring its intensity of light as a beam of light passes through solution.

IR spectrometer uses light over the infrared range from 700-15000 nm of electromagnetic radiation spectrum. If the concentration of greenhouse gases increases then more infrared radiation will be absorbed and emits back towards earth surface.

When infrared energy is absorbed by a matter the infrared causes the molecules or bonds to bend and vibrate. The matter gains kinetic energy which causes an increases in temperature. The absorption if radiation energy on matter causes an increases in temperature.

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If a cell stains dark for the sdh test and light for the matpase test, how can we classify that cell?

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Cell stained light for the metaphase test and dark for the SDH, then we can classify the cell as an oxidative cell.

What is metaphase?

Metaphase, the second stage of mitosis, sees the chromosomes travel onto the spindle's equatorial plane.

What is the SDH test?Oxidative cell stains are dark for the SDH test and light for the metaphase test.SDH is an enzyme used in testing mainly to detect hepatocellular injury in cattle and horses.SDH enzyme is also detected in human tissues. The major sites where the SDH enzymes are found in humans are kidneys, seminal vesicles and kidneys.

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What is the consequence of an unsaturated fatty acid having a double bond that is in a cis, rather than a trans, configuration?

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One of the consequences of fatty acid having a double bond that is in a cis, rather than a trans, configuration can be an alteration in the charge of the molecule.

Unsaturated fatty acids, which usually contain cis double bonds, also are degraded by β-oxidation. However, additional (auxiliary) enzymes are required to act on the preexisting double bonds once they are close to the thioester group as a result of chain-shortening. In an unsaturated fatty acid, the carbon atoms on either side of the double bond can be in either a cis or a trans configuration. The higher the concentration of trans fatty acids, the more solid the fat, so oils are generally high in cis fatty acids, and margarine and lard are high in trans fatty acids. Cis and trans fatty acids are geometric isomers. Cis fatty acids have hydrogen bonds on the same side whereas in Trans fatty acids hydrogens are found on opposite sides of the carbon atoms.

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Bacteria that degrade oil at great depths in offshore waters have most likely evolved new pathways and ________ by modifying existing ones

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Bacteria that degrade oil at great depths in offshore waters have most likely evolved new pathways and enzyme by modifying existing ones.

What is enzyme?Proteins called enzymes serve as biological catalysts. Chemical reactions are accelerated by catalysts. Substrates are the molecules that enzymes can interact with, and the enzyme changes the substrates into other molecules known as products.Proteins called enzymes assist our bodies' chemical reactions move forward more quickly. Health issues might result from having too much or too little of a specific enzyme. Healthcare professionals can also use the enzymes in our blood to look for injuries and illnesses.A component known as an enzyme serves as a catalyst in living things, controlling the rate at which chemical processes take place without undergoing any personal change. All biological activities in living things involve chemical reactions, and enzymes regulate the majority of them.

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Which group of non-prokaryotic organisms studied in microbiology typically have two life cycle stages: trophozoite and cyst?

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Non-prokaryotic organisms typically have two life cycle stages: trophozoite and cyst is Protozoa.

What is Protozoa?Protozoa is a group of single celled, non- prokaryotic organisms.These may either be free living or parasitic in nature.These are heterotrophs and reproduce asexually by binary fission.The Protozoa consists of many unrelated or loosely related organisms.They are divided into four major groups:  Sarcodina, Flagellates, Ciliates and Sporozoans..Some protozoa consist of two phases in their life cycle: proliferative stage (trophozoites) and resting stage (cysts).Trophozoites consists of the proliferative stage in which the protozoa divides and reproduces.The resting cyst form helps the protozoa to survive harsh environmental conditions like harmful chemicals, extreme temperature and nutrient and water deficiency.

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It is likely that modern Homo sapiens first extended out of Africa by crossing the Sinai Peninsula from North Africa and moved into the ____, or eastern Mediterranean.

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It is likely that modern Homo sapiens first extended out of Africa by crossing the Sinai Peninsula from North Africa and moved into the Levant or eastern Mediterranean.

Historically, a broad area in Western Asia's Eastern Mediterranean region has been referred to as the Levant.It is likely that modern Homo sapiens first extended out of Africa by crossing the Sinai Peninsula from North Africa and moved into the Levant or eastern Mediterranean.Levant originally meant "the East" or "Mediterranean lands east of Italy" when it first appeared in the English language in 1497. It is derived from the French word levant, which means "rising" and refers to the sun rising in the east or the sunrise location.Some of the earliest stone tools manufactured by our ancestors Homo erectus after they left Africa were made by the earliest humans in the Levant at a few known sites in Israel, Syria, and Jordan about 1.7 million years ago.

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Which experiment would best provide data to support the mechanism by which an odn inhibits in activity?

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Keeping integrase (IN) concentration constant and measuring the initial velocity of the reaction at increasing vDNA concentrations in the presence and absence of the ODN, is called competitive inhibition.

This experimental mechanism is competitive inhibition, where ODN (oligodeoxynucleotides) acts as competitive inhibitors. That is the ODN binds to the integrase instead of vDNA (viral DNA) binding to the enzyme integrase.

To determine the activity of the ODN, the Km and Vmax values should be calculated. Km (Michaelis constant) which shows the affinity of the enzyme to the substrate and Vmax (maximum velocity at saturating substrate concentration).

Calculating these two values in the presence and absence of the inhibitor can determine the activity of the inhibitor (ODN).

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Hybrids hide one expression of a trait that reappears when hybrids are self-crossed because _____.

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Hybrids hide one expression of a trait that reappears when hybrids are self-crossed because  As gametes form, paired sets of elementen separate, and when gametes connect during fertilization, the elementen combine once more.

The process of interbreeding individuals from genetically diverse populations to create a hybrid is known as genetic hybridization. Therefore, a genetic hybrid would have two unique alleles of the same gene. Because hybrid animals lack functional sex cells, they are unable to produce sperm or eggs, rendering them infertile. This is true because their parents' chromosomes from different species don't line up.

The merging of male and female gametes from the same organism is known as a self cross. Selfing is another name for it.

Some features exhibit a pattern whereby one allele expresses itself in the hybrid (dominant), while a second allele is present but hidden (recessive). A dominant allele will show up externally in the organism when it is combined with either another dominant allele or a recessive allele. Only when two recessive alleles are combined will a recessive allele become visible.

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Researchers isolated peptidoglycan from a eukaryotic cell. The best explanation for this would be that?

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Studies have shown that the peptidoglycan in eukaryotes is essential for their cell division and tumor cell formation.

Commonly, peptidoglycan (PG) is the component of the cell wall of prokaryotes, especially bacteria.

Recent discovery of endogenous synthesis of peptidoglycan in eukaryotes stated that the amount of PG difference between animals and bacteria becomes quantitative and no longer qualitative.

Some propose that bacterial surface components, whose synthesis is encoded in genes inherited by the eukaryotes from the ancestors of the organelles, may play a role in inter and intracellular communication.

This is the reason that PG synthesis can be correlated to two of the most fundamental processes in higher organisms, i.e. cell division, Aging and tumor formation.

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Why does almond focus her research on helping people become more resilient to microaggressions rather than trying to prevent microaggressions from happening?

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Almond focus her research on helping people become more resilient to microaggressions rather than trying to prevent microaggressions from happening because it may be practically impossible to prevent it it makes more sense to reduce its impact .

Because always try to solve the problem ,not try to end it .

What is microaggression ?

A microaggression is a comment or action that negatively targets a marginalized person or group .a microaggression can be intentional or accidental . it is form of discrimination .

People who engage in microaggressions may mean no harm toward the person or group being targeted. they may not even realise that they are making a microaggressive comment or action.

It can be very hurtful to the people who experience them.it may be verbal, nonverbal and are typically automatic .

Microaggression may  demean a person's race , gender , sexsual orientation, heritage , age or health status .

Example : when a person says that wow you can speak english ,your english is very fluent ,implies that this is somehow unexpected because of the person's skin color or nationality.

It is usually clear when someone's behaviour is discriminatory such as when they use a racial slur.

Microaggression may be classified into three categories :

microassaults ,microinsults ,microinvalidation.

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How is precycling different from recycling? signs showing the concept of recycling precycling involves using products that produce less waste so less material needs to be thrown away or recycled. precycling consists of various steps you should take before recycling, such as washing bottles and aluminum cans. precycling refers to ways to save energy, such as not preheating an oven for too long or fixing water leaks.

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Precycling involves taking action before a substance, material, or product becomes waste because it focuses on preventing the formation of waste. While recycling, which is a type of precycling, entails taking action before existing garbage is left to decompose naturally.What is Precycling?Precycling involves avoiding waste-producing things, choosing other items that will make less waste, or purchasing items that can be used again. Being an avid precycler not only covers a wide range of opportunities for reducing our environmental impact, but it may also help you save money.What is Recycling?Recycling is a great activity because it enables numerous energy savings, but it is not a free pass for our waste. Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle are the three R's of going green, and they are in that order for a reason. Recycling is connected to "Reduce," the most crucial of the 3Rs, as well as to "Reuse," which is also frequently called "Repurposing."

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What is most likely to occur in a patient infected with a mutant strain of bordetella pertussis that lacks functional adhesins?.

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A patient infected with a mutant strain of Bordetella pertussis that lacks functional adhesins will most likely not develop the disease.

What are adhesins?

Adhesins are any of the several factors that enable bacteria to adhere to epithelial surfaces of the host cell as a step towards infection.

It is very cogent for bacterial pathogens to attach or adhere to the surface of a host cell because they can be easily flushed off.

However, this means that if a bacterial pathogen cannot adhere successfully to a host cell surface, it will likely not be able to replicate and cause disease.

Therefore, a patient infected with a mutant strain of Bordetella pertussis that lacks functional adhesins will most likely not develop the disease.

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The most likely in a patient infected with B pertussis that lacks functional adhesins is that bacterium cannot colonize the lower respiratory system.

What are adhesins?

Adhesins are specific proteins used by cells (both host cells and pathogenic microorganisms) capable of binding to other cell surfaces.

These proteins (adhesins) are fundamental during the disease progression in order to infect suitable hosts, thereby they are virulence factors and therapeutic targets.

In conclusion, the most likely in a patient infected with B pertussis that lacks functional adhesins is that bacterium cannot colonize the lower respiratory system.

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Select the correct answer. at which phase of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm of a cell divide to form two daughter cells? a. s phase b. m phase c. cytokinesis

Answers

Answer:

Cytokinesis

Explanation:

Cytokinesis is the final step of mitosis, where the fully mature cell that has successfully formed 2 independent nuclei with fully functional cellular bodies divides into 2 identical daughter cells.

Land that used to be a meadow is converted to a housing development. the next year, fewer milkweed flowers are observed. what happened?

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A former meadow is turned into a housing complex, and the next year, fewer milkweed blooms are seen due to pollination.

What applications does milkweed have?

The herb has also been used medicinally despite the danger of poisoning. Many native cultures chewed the roots of milkweed to heal diarrhea and used the sap to remove warts. Infusions and salves were also made from it to treat asthma, coughing, fevers, rashes, and swelling.

What kind of soil is ideal for milkweed growth?

In regions with more rainfall, like the eastern United States, milkweed thrives. Asclepias tuberosa, sometimes known as butterfly weed, thrives in drier climates like those in the western United States. Sand or gravelly soils are required. The Clay variety is an anomaly since it thrives on heavier soils, especially dry clay. Plant under the intense sun.

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Which best describes neurons? like all eukaryotic cells, neurons do not have the ability to regulate what substances go in and out of the cell. like all eukaryotic cells, neurons have a nucleus that controls the activities of the cell. unlike other eukaryotic cells, neurons cannot produce energy that can be used to carry out the life-sustaining processes of the cell. unlike other eukaryotic cells, neurons have a membrane that surrounds the cell.

Answers

like all eukaryotic cells, neurons have a nucleus that controls the activities of the cell is the correct option.

What are neurons?The basic building blocks of the brain and nervous system are neurons. They are the cells that receive sensory information from the outside world, convey motor directions to our muscles, and transform and relay electrical signals at each stage along the way.What is the function of neuron?The neuron, a specialized cell created to send information to other nerve cells, muscle cells, or gland cells, is the basic functional unit of the brain. Axons, dendrites, and a cell body make up the majority of neurons.

Mention the types of neurons:

Sensory neuronsMotor neuronsInterneurons

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Anatomic dead space greatly affects the efficiency of pulmonary ventilation.

a. true
b. false

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The correct option is a. true.

Anatomic dead space greatly affects the efficiency of pulmonary ventilation is a true statement.

What is pulmonary ventilation?

Breathing is the general name for pulmonary ventilation. The act of air into the lungs at inspiration (inhalation) and exiting the lungs during expiration is known as it (exhalation).

Some key points of pulmonary ventilation are-

The respiratory system, often known as pulmonary ventilation, supports breathing. Air is inhaled during pulmonary breathing through nasal and oral canals (nose or mouth). It passes into the lungs via the pharynx, throat, and trachea. After that, air is expelled and returns along the same path. Pulmonary ventilation is triggered by changes in the volume as well as air pressure within the lungs. Both diaphragm plus external intercostal muscle contract as the rib cage raises during a typical inhale. As the lungs expand, the air pressure decreases and more air rushes in. Normal exhalation causes the muscles to relax. Air is ejected, the lungs contract, and the air pressure increases.

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Easy! Please Help! A man is walking through the woods with his dog. Suddenly, a tree limb falls in his path and he leaps out of the way to avoid it. Then the man's dog gets loose, and he ends up chasing it through the woods for a minute or two before he manages to catch it.
a) Describe the function of the respiratory system in this situation.

b) Describe the function of the endocrine system in this situation.

c) Describe the function of the nervous system in this situation.

d) Describe two ways that any of the man's body systems worked together in this situation.

Answers

The answers include the following:

The respiratory system gave the cells more oxygen via breathing to perform various activities.The endocrine system released hormones such as adrenaline to activate chemical changes and stay alert.The nervous system carried electrical impulses necessary for the contraction and relaxation of muscles.The bones and muscles worked together to ensure adequate movement.

What is Musculoskeletal system?

This is the system which comprises of bones, ligaments etc and ensure that the body system has a rigid structure.

It also ensures organisms are able to move from one place to another in search of food and for their survival.

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How would the presence of an extra solute - glucose – in the urine affect the urine is osmotic pressure and tendency to draw water by osmosis?

Answers

When the extra amount of glucose is present then the reabsorbtion capacity of kidney glucose remains in the filtrate , which is causes an increase in osmotic pressure causing potassium and water to move out into the urine.

Hyper-tonic additional glucose stimulates osmotic fluid that increase plasma and blood volumes. Glucose provides nutritional aspects and also used as a metabolic testing. Decreased intravascular osmotic pressure from decreased concentration of plasma protein , particularly.

Osmotic pressure is required to prevent the net movement of water into solute of the solution when the solution are separated by a selectively permeable membrane.Serum albumin protein found in blood plasma that helps in maintain osmotic pressure between blood vessel and tissues.

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In an isolated population of 1000 individuals, 444 are genotype mn, 478 are mm, and 78 are nn. What are the frequencies of the m and n alleles in this population?.

Answers

f(M) = 0.7, f(N) = 0.3 are the frequencies of the m and n alleles in this population.

What is the relative fitness of genotype BB What is the relative fitness of genotype BB?

A relative fitness of 1.0 can occur for more than one genotype. B. The relative fitness of genotype BB in a population of chickens used as a sample is 1.0. The selection coefficients for genotype Bb and genotype Bb are respectively 0.3 and 0.4.

Which of the following processes tends to increase genetic variation in a population?

Genetic diversity is typically increased by mutations while being decreased by the other three mechanisms. Migration tends to homogenize genetic variation, reducing the genetic diversity between populations, whereas natural selection and genetic drift tend to increase it.

Where are alleles?

Alleles are matching genes; one from our biological mother, one from our biological father. We have two copies of every gene (strings of code that drive some biological function on our chromosomes). They can be identical, but they can often have slight differences.

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Calculate the mass in grams of 3.41 x 10^24 molecules of propylamine. The chemical formula for propylamine is C3,H9,N.
mass:

Answers

The mass of 3.41×10²⁴molecules of propylamine is 33.45 gms.

What is avogador's no. ?

Avogadro's number, the number of units in one mole of any substance (defined as its molecular weight in grams), is equal to 6.02214076 × 10²³.

How to determine the molar mass of compound ?

To this problem we first need to calculate the molar mass of the given compound. as follows:

3×12+1×9+1×14 = 59

In the next step, we simply apply the formula to calculate the mass of the compound. it is

No. of molecules ÷ Avogadro's no. × molar mass of the compound

3.41 x 10²⁴÷6.02×10²³×54= 33.43gms

Hence, the mass of 3.41×10²⁴molecules of propylamine is 33.45 gms.

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Scientists in the field of evo-devo have determined that evolutionary changes can be a result of changes in ________.

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Scientists in the field of evo-devo have determined that evolutionary changes can be a result of changes in homeotic genes.

Homeotic genes are a class of genes that regulate how the body forms in the early stages of organism development. These genes produce proteins known as transcription factors that instruct cells to generate different body components.

In the hierarchy of genes governing the initial stages of embryonic development in Drosophila, homeotic genes play a key role. They are involved in defining the unique identities of each of the insect's bodily parts.

Evo-devo offers proof that significant morphological change is both feasible and not always necessitated by significant alterations in the DNA. Gilbert (2003) and Arthur (2004) have also argued that when teaching evolution, development should be taken into consideration.

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If deforestation continues at its current rate, what percent of the Amazon biome will not have
trees by the year 2030?
Select one:
O a. 27%
O b. 31%
O c. 20%
O d. 37%

Answers

If deforestation continues at the current rate, 37% of the Amazon biome will be treeless by the year 2030

The d. 37%

What happens if deforestation continues in the Amazon?

The Amazon Rainforest is also home to the largest variety of species in the world, from insects to dolphins to birds. In the next 25 years, if deforestation continues at this rate, nearly half the world's species of plants and animals will be destroyed or severely threatened.

What is the percentage of deforestation in the Amazon rainforest?

Also according to the same intersection, 813 km² were destroyed in state public forests, which is equivalent to 8% of the total deforested in the Amazon. In these areas, deforestation also reached the highest accumulated in the decade, growing 26% compared to 2020.

With this information, we can conclude that In addition to causing environmental imbalance, the extinction of species can impact economic activities, such as agriculture, fishing and livestock. Deforestation in the Amazon contributes to the increase in global warming.

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what are the disadvantages of transgenic rabbits? glowing rabbits

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The main evolutionary disadvantage of transgenic rabbits, in this case, is associated with the lack of adaptation that fluorescence will produce making them susceptible to predators.

What is adaptation?

Adaptation is a slow evolutionary process where more adapted individuals are selected by differential reproduction and survival.

Fluorescent transgenic rabbits will be more susceptible to predators in natural populations, thereby they will have less adaptive fitness compared to normal rabbits.

In conclusion, the main evolutionary disadvantage of transgenic rabbits, in this case, is associated with the lack of adaptation that fluorescence will produce making them susceptible to predators.

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A& p the fibrous tissue that surrounds each muscle cell or fiber is called ____ and its function is to

Answers

Answer:   The answer is Epimysiym

Explanation:

When iron-deficiency anemia is present, aerobic capacity declines and subsequently increases with iron supplementation.

a. true
b. false

Answers

True because it makes sense

When an individual is promised a positive outcome for submission to sexual advances, or threatened with a negative outcome for failure to submit to sexual activities, this is referred to as:__________

Answers

When an individual is promised a positive outcome for submission to sexual advances, or threatened with a negative outcome for failure to submit to sexual activities, this is referred to as: "Quid Pro Quo harassment."

What is Quid Pro Quo harassment?

Quid pro quo is considered a kind of sexual harassment per Title IX for sex discrimination purposes. Quid pro quo harassment occurs when a subordinate experiences a real negative consequence for refusing to comply with a superior's sexual requests.

If an employee desires to hold the employer liable for workplace quid pro quo sexual misconduct, they must be able to demonstrate certain requirements. And although each case is unique, the following factors are typically necessary to establish quid pro quo harassment:

Employees must demonstrate that they belong to a protected class, which in this context means simply that federal law, namely Title VII, protects them and other employees against workplace discrimination as a result of sex.Unwanted sexual advances were made against the employee by another worker, usually a supervisor or corporate officer.The harasser's motivation for the harassment was sexual.Aspects of the employee's career, such as pay or a promotion or demotion, were negatively impacted as a result of their response to the sexual advances.

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An action potential traveling along the entire length of an axon demonstrates ________ propagation.

Answers

An action potential traveling along the entire length of an axon demonstrates continuous propagation.

Propagation of action potential:

An action potential is created by the rapid input of Na+ ions and the slightly slower outflow of K+ ions. Action potential initiation occurs in the axon's first segment, and as action potentials spread throughout the axon, cells can convey their output to synapses located further distant from the cell. The action potential conducts continuously in unmyelinated axons, whereas it conducts rapidly and saltatorily in myelinated axons where sodium channels are concentrated near the nodes of Ranvier.The action potential always advances in the same direction whenever a local current begins to form due to the prior axon segment still being in the absolute refractory period. As a result, action potentials travel away from the location of their generation and do not change course.

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Which correctly distinguishes between how a pine tree and an apple tree reproduce?
the pine tree bears flowers; the apple tree does not have any flowers.
the pine tree has unprotected seeds; the apple tree has seeds in fruit.
the pine tree is vascular; the apple tree is a seedless, nonvascular plant.
the pine tree is nonvascular; the apple tree is vascular.

Answers

the pine tree has unprotected seeds; the apple tree has seeds in fruit.

The pine tree has unprotected seeds. The apple tree has seeds in fruit correctly distinguishes between how a pine tree and an apple tree reproduce.How do pine trees reproduce?Pine trees produce seeds to reproduce. Pine trees produce seeds that are found on scales of structures known as cones, as opposed to deciduous trees, which produce seeds that are surrounded by fruit (pine cones). Cones, the male and female reproductive organs of pine trees, are both present. The same tree is home to both male and female cones.How do apple trees reproduce?Pollen is transferred from the male organ, or stamen, of one blossom to the female organ, or pistil, of another in flowering plants, including apple trees. Few apples with naturally occurring seeds have any real commercial value; the fruit is frequently tiny, bitter, and varies from tree to tree.

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Answer:  The correct answer is the pine tree has unprotected seeds; the apple tree has seeds in the fruit.

Explanation:  Confirmed correct.

More desert cottontail rabbits move into the ecosystem. Describe how the additional rabbits will affect the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for both coyotes and wild grasses. PLEASE HELP ME !!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Answers

The increase in population of the cottontail rabbit will put a strain on the local food chain. There will be a decrease in wild grasses because of larger population. The coyotes population will increase because of the abundance of prey. After the wild grasses can no longer support the extra rabbits, there will dip in population for both the rabbits and the coyotes and will affect the rest of the ecosystem because the coyotes need to find an alternative prey.

Overgrazing natural and sown pastures, which results in a loss of plant diversification and lower crop yields, is one way that rabbits can harm an area.

What effect of rabbit on carrying capacity of ecosystem?

Reducing the carrying capacity of the land by increasing grazing pressure and competing with domestic cattle and local animals for food and shelter.

The neighborhood food chain will be impacted by the cottontail rabbit's population growth. Wild grasses will disappear as a result of increased population.

Due to the abundance of prey, the coyote population will grow. The number of both the coyotes and the extra rabbits will decline.

If the wild grasses are unable to support the extra rabbits, which will have an impact on the ecosystem as a whole.

Therefore, additional rabbits will affect the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for both coyotes and wild grasses.

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Once glycogen stores are replenished, what role does the remaining oxidized glucose fill?

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Answer:

d

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