To implement 360 degree feedback effectively, all of the following guidelines are useful except

a. make sure to provide names of sources for further feedback.

b. the evaluator should be jointly identified by the supervisor and employee.

c. train information sources as well as those who will deliver feedback.

d. use 360 degree feedback exclusively for developmental and growth purposes.

Answers

Answer 1

To implement 360 degree feedback effectively, all of the following guidelines are useful except using 360-degree feedback exclusively for developmental and growth purposes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation:360-degree feedback is a method of performance review where feedback is taken from a range of different sources, including peers, direct reports, managers, and clients, rather than just the individual's manager. The goal of the 360-degree feedback process is to provide the individual with more well-rounded feedback and help identify areas for development.

However, it is essential to use the feedback effectively.

Therefore, the following guidelines are useful while implementing 360-degree feedback:

Make sure to provide names of sources for further feedback.

The evaluator should be jointly identified by the supervisor and employee.

Train information sources as well as those who will deliver feedback.

Use 360-degree feedback for developmental and growth purposes and also for performance appraisal

Use multiple raters to increase the accuracy of the feedback.  Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

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Related Questions

Evelyn and Carter have been married for 46 years. They are in their retirement and have 2 kids that are financially independent. They have five grandchildren, all under the age of 10. Carter is in good health. Evelyn is also in good physical health but her family has a history of dementia and she is starting to show signs of the condition. They live in Ontario. Both Evelyn and Carter have continuing powers of attorney for personal care and financial affairs naming each other to act should it be needed. Their continuing powers of attorney only become effective if they are deemed incapable of making their own decisions. Evelyn has a will naming Carter as Executor. Carter does not have a will. Required: a) Explain how Evelyn's powers of attorney applies if Evelyn is deemed incapable. (3 marks) b) Explain how Carter's estate will be distributed upon his passing. (3 marks)

Answers

As there are two children, they will each receive 1/3 of the estate while Evelyn will receive the remaining 1/3 of the estate. So, in case Evelyn is deemed incapable, the power of attorney will take effect, and Carter will be able to make decisions for her.

a) Powers of attorney are legal documents that allow an individual, in this case, Carter to act on behalf of Evelyn when she becomes incapable of making her own decisions. Continuing powers of attorney for personal care and financial affairs only become effective if they are deemed incapable of making their own decisions.

b) As Carter does not have a will, his estate will be distributed as per the Ontario Succession Law Reform Act. The Act provides for the distribution of an estate in cases where a person dies without a will. According to the act, if Carter passes away without a will, his estate will be distributed equally among his spouse, Evelyn, and his children, as they are his closest surviving relatives.

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when interviewing a source, open-ended questions are preferable to leading questions. True or False

Answers

It is true that open-ended questions rather than leading ones should be used while interviewing sources.

Open-ended questions are free-form assessments that enable respondents to provide answers based on their full knowledge, sentiment, and understanding. This query doesn't have a finite number of possible answers. A question with an open conclusion allows you to go deeply into the respondent's answers and glean important information about the topic, as opposed to a question with a restricted conclusion that limits and narrows tick responses to the possibilities provided. You can get in-depth and descriptive information about a material by using the answers to these qualitative exploration questions.

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What diet-planning principle calls for selecting foods from each of the food groups daily and varying your choices within each food group?
a. adequacy
b. moderation
c. balance
d. variety

Answers

The diet-planning principle that calls for selecting foods from each of the food groups daily and varying your choices within each food group is c. balance.

1. The diet-planning principle that emphasizes the importance of selecting foods from each of the food groups daily is called "balance."

2. The concept of balance in diet planning involves ensuring that you consume a variety of foods from all the food groups on a regular basis.

3. Each food group provides different essential nutrients, so it is crucial to include a range of foods to meet your nutritional needs.

4. The food groups typically recommended in a balanced diet include fruits, vegetables, grains, protein sources (such as meat, poultry, fish, legumes, and nuts), and dairy or dairy alternatives.

5. By including foods from each group, you ensure that you obtain a diverse array of vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, proteins, and healthy fats.

6. Along with selecting foods from each group, it is also important to vary your choices within each food group.

7. For example, within the fruit group, you can choose different types of fruits like apples, bananas, berries, and citrus fruits to gain a wide range of nutrients.

8. Similarly, within the vegetable group, you can opt for various options such as leafy greens, cruciferous vegetables, and colorful vegetables to maximize nutritional diversity.

9. Varying your choices within each food group not only helps to prevent monotony in your diet but also ensures that you receive a broad spectrum of essential nutrients.

10. In summary, the diet-planning principle of balance calls for selecting foods from each of the food groups daily and varying your choices within each food group to promote optimal nutrition and overall health.

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the flatter the generalization curve, the greater the degree of generalization. a) true. b) false.

Answers

It is true that The flatter the generalization curve, the greater the degree of generalization.

A graph marking the similarity or difference between two  stimulants versus the similarity or difference in their  inspired responses. An excitatory  grade( or excitation  grade) graphs an increased tendency to respond to a  encouragement and to other  stimulants that act it, whereas an inhibitory  grade( or inhibition  grade) graphs a  dropped tendency. In general, the more analogous two  stimulants, the more  analogous the responses.   A  encouragement  conception  grade occurs when you have an original conditioned  encouragement,  similar as the middle C on a piano, that has been paired with an unconditioned  encouragement,  similar as a air of air, which causes the unconditioned response of an  shake.

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Someone answer these Questions for me, They are sports related please answer in paragraph format

1.Should leagues and sports supervisory bodies care about what substances their athletes ingest? If the substances weren’t banned, and all athletes could take whatever they wanted, wouldn’t that eliminate all ethical issues? Explain your answer.

2.Performance enhancing drugs (PEDs) have been used by some athletes to gain a competitive advantage. Since competition is at the very core of sports, shouldn’t PEDs be permitted? Explain the ethical reasoning supporting your answer.

3.List 2 steps that leagues and sports supervisory bodies can take to discourage, if not eliminate, the use of banned substances by athletes.

4.Provide one real example of an athlete who used a banned substance. What were the consequences for the athlete and for the sport in general?

Answers

1. Leagues and sports supervisory bodies should care about the substances athletes ingest, even if they are not banned, to ensure athlete safety and maintain the integrity of the sport. 2. Permitting performance-enhancing drugs (PEDs) would undermine fair play and compromise athlete health, going against the core principles of sports. 3. Steps to discourage the use of banned substances include implementing rigorous drug testing programs and educating athletes about the risks and consequences. 4. Lance Armstrong, a former professional cyclist, used banned substances and faced severe consequences such as losing his Tour de France titles and a lifetime ban from competitive cycling. His case shed light on doping in cycling and led to stricter anti-doping measures.

1. Leagues and sports supervisory bodies should care about what substances their athletes ingest, even if the substances are not banned. While allowing all athletes to take whatever they wanted may eliminate some ethical issues related to fairness and doping regulations, it would introduce new concerns regarding athlete safety and the integrity of the sport. Monitoring and regulating substances are necessary to ensure a level playing field and protect athletes from potential harm associated with unchecked substance use.

Additionally, maintaining ethical standards in sports involves upholding values such as fair competition, skill development, and the pursuit of excellence through natural abilities rather than relying solely on artificial enhancements.

2. While competition is indeed central to sports, permitting the use of performance-enhancing drugs (PEDs) would undermine the principles of fair play and the integrity of the sport. Allowing PEDs would create an uneven playing field, as not all athletes would have access to or choose to use these substances.

It would also compromise the health and well-being of athletes, as PEDs can have serious short-term and long-term health consequences. Moreover, the essence of sports lies in the celebration of human potential and natural talent, not artificial enhancements. Upholding ethical reasoning in this context means prioritizing fairness, health, and the preservation of the true spirit of sport.

3. Leagues and sports supervisory bodies can take several steps to discourage and reduce the use of banned substances by athletes. First, implementing rigorous and effective drug testing programs is crucial. Regular and random testing can serve as a deterrent and detection mechanism, creating a fear of consequences among athletes considering the use of banned substances.

Second, educating athletes about the risks and consequences associated with banned substances is essential. Raising awareness about the potential health hazards, the impact on fairness, and the disciplinary actions can discourage athletes from resorting to doping practices. Additionally, providing support and resources for athletes to focus on natural training methods, skill development, and ethical sportsmanship can help shift the focus away from performance-enhancing substances.

4. One real example of an athlete who used a banned substance is the case of Lance Armstrong, a former professional cyclist. Armstrong admitted to using performance-enhancing drugs, including erythropoietin (EPO) and testosterone, throughout his career. The consequences for Armstrong were severe. He was stripped of his seven Tour de France titles and faced a lifetime ban from competitive cycling.

Armstrong's case had significant repercussions for the sport of cycling as well. It highlighted the prevalence of doping practices and led to increased scrutiny and efforts to combat doping in the sport. The fallout from Armstrong's actions served as a wake-up call, prompting a reevaluation of anti-doping measures and the need for stricter regulations and enforcement in cycling and other sports.

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Explain each of the following terms in words, without giving any formulae:
❼ crude mortality rate
❼ directly standardized mortality rate
❼ indirectly standardized mortality rate
❼ standardized mortality ratio

Answers

1. Crude mortality rate: The crude mortality rate is a measure of the number of deaths occurring in a population during a specific time period, usually expressed per 1,000 or 100,000 population.

It provides a general overview of the mortality level in a population without considering any specific factors such as age or gender.2. Directly standardized mortality rate: This rate is calculated by applying age-specific death rates from a standard population to the age distribution of the population under study. It allows for comparison of mortality rates between populations with different age structures, providing a more accurate assessment of mortality risk.3. Indirectly standardized mortality rate: This rate is calculated by comparing the observed number of deaths in a specific population to the expected number of deaths based on age-specific death rates from a standard population.

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______ is one of the six key traits identified as those of successful leaders.

Answers

One of the six essential qualities regarded as those of effective leaders is emotional intelligence.

The ability to identify, comprehend, and control one's own emotions as well as the emotions of others is referred to as emotional intelligence. High emotional intelligence allows leaders to successfully navigate interpersonal relationships, encourage and inspire others, and make wise judgements. They excel at effective communication, self-regulation, self-awareness, and empathy. Building strong teams, fostering a good and supportive work atmosphere, and being able to change with the times all require emotional intelligence from leaders. It is an essential component of effective leadership and is widely acknowledged as a necessary quality in strong leaders.

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C. Why do you think the Founders provided in the Constitution
that the US Senate and the president should share the power to
place persons on the judicial bench as a judge or justice ?

Answers

The Founders provided in the Constitution that the US Senate and the president should share the power to appoint judges for several reasons such as Checks and Balances, Reflecting Different Interests, Advice and Consent, and Ensuring Independence.

Checks and Balances: To prevent the concentration of power in a single branch of government, the Founders sought to create a system of checks and balances. In order to maintain a balance of power and prevent any one branch from controlling the judiciary, they tried to involve both the executive (President) and legislative (Senate) branches in the nomination process.

Reflecting Different Interests: A balance between many interests and viewpoints is represented by the Constitution. Shared power in the appointment of judges enables the representation of many interests and points of view. The Senate, acting as a representative body, may take into account the judge's credentials and appropriateness from a wider viewpoint, whereas the president, as the leader of the executive branch, may take into account issues like the judge's ideology or political affiliation.

Advice and Consent: The Senate's involvement in the appointment process adds another level of scrutiny and responsibility. It enables open discussion and scrutiny of the candidate's credentials, personality, and suitability for the job. By offering its advice and consent, the Senate serves as a check on the president's appointment power, ensuring that applicants are carefully examined before assuming judicial positions.

Ensuring Independence: The Founders aimed to increase the independence of the court by mandating that Senate confirmation be obtained before judicial nominees could be appointed. This procedure prevents the nomination of judges who might be incompetent, prejudiced, or lacking in the requisite integrity. The involvement of the Senate and the president helps avoid the selection of judges who are only motivated by partisanship or private interests.

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Imagine you are attending a party hosted by friends and others within your community. Your close friend has introduced you and mentioned you are seeking your degree in Accounting at MSU and that you are currently taking a tax class. Several people are excited to hear you know about taxation. One person asks you, "I am about to structure a business deal and have been told I should consult with an accountant before I do. What are your thoughts, should I spend the money up front to get tax advice or wait until it is time to file my tax return?"

Discuss with your fellow classmates the importance of tax planning.

Answers

Tax situations can vary significantly depending on individual circumstances and applicable tax laws. Therefore, it is important for individuals to seek individualized advice from a qualified tax professional to address their specific needs and objectives.

Tax planning ensures compliance with applicable tax laws and regulations. Obtaining professional tax advice beforehand can help individuals understand the legal requirements and obligations associated with a particular business transaction or financial situation. This will help you avoid penalties, fines or legal issues that may result from violations.

Effective tax planning helps you make the most of your financial resources. By minimizing tax liability, individuals and businesses have more funds available for investment, expansion, savings, and other financial goals. This contributes to long-term financial stability and growth.

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T/F. All followers ultimately end up as either members of the in-group or members of the out-group.

Answers

False. Not all followers end up as either members of the in-group or members of the out-group. In social psychology and leadership studies, the in-group and out-group concepts refer to the categorization of individuals based on their perceived similarity or difference to a particular group. While these categories can exist within group dynamics, it does not mean that all followers will fall into one of these categories.

In reality, group dynamics and categorizations can be complex and dynamic. Within a given group, there can be various subgroups or levels of identification, and individuals may move between different social categories over time. Additionally, some individuals may not strongly identify with either the in-group or out-group, and their relationships with the group may be more nuanced or ambivalent.

It is important to note that group categorizations and dynamics are influenced by multiple factors, including individual differences, social context, shared goals, and interpersonal relationships. Therefore, it is not accurate to claim that all followers will ultimately be classified as either members of the in-group or members of the out-group.

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Which of the following is not one of the Qualities of Wilderness Character referred to throughout our course?

Group of answer choices:

A.) outstanding opportunities for solitude, or primitive and unconfined recreation

B.) degree of naturalness

C.) species diversity

D.) undeveloped

E.) untrammeled

Answers

The option that is not one of the qualities of Wilderness Character referred to throughout the course is C: "species diversity".

Wilderness Character is an expression that refers to the particular qualities and characteristics of wilderness. These qualities and characteristics were introduced in the Wilderness Act of 1964 and have been used to define and evaluate wilderness ever since. The qualities of Wilderness Character referred to throughout our course are as follows:

UndevelopedUntrammeled, Degree of naturalnessOutstanding opportunities for solitudePrimitive and unconfined recreation.

As species diversity is not one of the qualities of Wilderness Character referred to throughout the course, option C is the right answer.

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Historically, Malaysia has a long track record of combating poverty through special rural and urban development plans.
Discuss FOUR(4) main social security and welfare benefits programmes that have offered protection for many people in Malaysia.

Answers

SOCSO in Malaysia is a Social security and welfare benefits program that has protected many Malaysians.

People in Malaysia can take advantage of a variety of benefits through the SOCSO program. The government provides financial assistance to those who sustain workplace injuries and are unable to work.

The primary objective of SOCSO is to provide private sector workers with financial and other forms of social security protection in the event of an accident, illness, or death on the job.

Contributions to SOCSO payments should be made by both employers and employees. Contribution rates range from 0.5 percent to 3 percent, with employees contributing a smaller portion based on their income.

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Discuss and contrast the libertarian, liberal and collectivist
theories of society.

Answers

The libertarian theory of society emphasizes individual liberty and limited government intervention, the liberal theory advocates for a balance between individual freedoms and social welfare, while the collectivist theory emphasizes collective ownership and shared decision-making for societal well-being.

Libertarianism promotes maximum individual freedom, limited government intervention, and free markets as the primary mechanism for organizing society. Liberals, on the other hand, support individual rights and liberties but also recognize the need for a social safety net and government intervention to address social inequalities. Collectivism emphasizes the primacy of the collective over individual interests, advocating for communal ownership and decision-making in order to achieve social equity and harmony.

These three theories of society—libertarian, liberal, and collectivist—represent different philosophical approaches to the role of government, individual rights, and societal well-being. While libertarianism emphasizes individual freedom, liberalism seeks a balance between individual liberties and social welfare, and collectivism prioritizes communal ownership and decision-making for the betterment of society. Understanding and contrasting these theories provides insight into different perspectives on governance and societal organization.

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Explanatory studies are designed to find answers to which of the following questions?

a. Are people's attitudes toward public welfare changing?
b. Why are people's attitudes toward public welfare changing?
c. Who watches soap operas?
d. Is a measurement scale valid?

Answers

Explanatory studies are designed to find answers to the question Why are people's attitudes toward public welfare changing?

The option (A) is correct.

Explanatory studies aim to understand the underlying reasons or causal factors behind a phenomenon or behavior. In this case, the focus is on understanding the factors that influence changes in people's attitudes toward public welfare. These studies seek to identify the causes, motivations, or influences that drive shifts in attitudes and provide insights into the underlying mechanisms at play.

By conducting an explanatory study, researchers can contribute to our understanding of the complex dynamics shaping people's attitudes toward public welfare.

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How could we best characterize people's behavior when it comes into conflict with evolutionary dictates?

A. Evolutionary pressures shape people's behavior in such a way that there is little conflict. B. It is not overly difficult to ignore evolutionary pressures; lots of people do this in many ways all the time. C. People will follow evolutionary dictates until they lead to an unwanted outcome, at which point they will move against these dictates. D. People can overcome evolutionary pressures with a significant exercise of will.

Answers

The characterization of people's behavior when it conflicts with evolutionary dictates is a complex matter with various perspectives. While it is challenging to provide a definitive answer without considering specific contexts, we can discuss some general viewpoints:

A. Evolutionary pressures shape people's behavior in such a way that there is little conflict:  From an evolutionary psychology standpoint, human behavior is thought to be influenced by evolutionary pressures that have shaped our ancestors' survival and reproductive success. Proponents of this view argue that our behaviors are adaptations that have been naturally selected over generations, minimizing conflict with evolutionary dictates.

B. It is not overly difficult to ignore evolutionary pressures; lots of people do this in many ways all the time: On the other hand, many argue that humans possess cognitive abilities and cultural systems that allow them to override or modify their behavior, often deviating from evolutionary dictates. This perspective suggests that individuals have the capacity to consciously make choices that contradict evolutionary pressures in various aspects of life.

C. People will follow evolutionary dictates until they lead to an unwanted outcome, at which point they will move against these dictates: Another perspective suggests that individuals may generally follow evolutionary dictates until they encounter circumstances where the outcomes become undesirable or conflict with other societal or personal values. In such cases, individuals may consciously choose to act contrary to their evolutionary instincts.

D. People can overcome evolutionary pressures with a significant exercise of will: This viewpoint proposes that individuals have the ability to exert conscious effort and self-control to override their evolutionary predispositions. It suggests that through self-awareness, education, and personal growth, people can consciously choose behaviors that go against evolutionary dictates when they deem it necessary.

In summary, people's behavior when it conflicts with evolutionary dictates can vary depending on the specific context and individual circumstances. It is important to recognize that human behavior is influenced by a multitude of factors, including evolutionary pressures, cognitive abilities, cultural influences, personal values, and conscious decision-making.

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True or False : People who possess the personality trait of Machiavellianism support delegation of authority, power, and control to subordinates.

Answers

False. People who possess the personality trait of Machiavellianism tend to prioritize their own self-interests and manipulate others for personal gain. They are often characterized by a manipulative and exploitative nature.

seeking to maintain control and power for themselves rather than delegating it to subordinates. Machiavellian individuals are more likely to engage in strategic behaviors and use others as a means to achieve their goals. They are typically driven by a desire for personal success and are less inclined to trust others with authority or power.True or False : People who possess the personality trait of Machiavellianism support delegation of authority, power, and control to subordinates. They are often characterized by a manipulative and exploitative nature. Machiavellianism tend to prioritize their own self-interests and manipulate others for personal gain.

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Emma and Ben are siblings and are concerned about the long-term care of their father, Luke, should he become ill and need ongoing care. After meeting with him and his agent, Emma and Ben have decided to obtain and pay for a policy so that they will both have control over the policy, including jointly approving any changes in beneficiary. They have designated their father as beneficiary. Given this scenario which of the following statements is most correct? Select one: a. Luke is the life insured and the long-term care facility is the beneficiary b. Emma and Ben pay for the policy while Luke is the beneficiary c. Emma and Ben have control of the policy but no legal ownership d. Emma and Ben pay for and are the policyholders of the policy

Answers

d. Emma and Ben pay for and are the policyholders of the policy.

In the given scenario, Emma and Ben are taking proactive steps to ensure the long-term care of their father, Luke.

They have decided to obtain and pay for a policy, indicating that they are the ones financially responsible for the policy. By doing so, Emma and Ben become the policyholders, which means they have legal ownership and control over the policy. They have specifically mentioned that they will jointly approve any changes in beneficiary, which further solidifies their control over the policy. While their father, Luke, is the beneficiary of the policy, he is not the one paying for it, and he does not have direct control or ownership of the policy.

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Our theoretical explanation for how a calling is maintained has some practical implications. Theater actors who frame their work as a calling are subjected to forms of organizational exploitation; often, they work for a minimal salary, and sometimes even for free. The ambiguities of a calling with dimensions of sacrifice, responsibility and self-care place them at high risk for exploitation, which has practical implications for understanding the consequences of prominent managerial discourses that frame work as an act of self-fulfillment and self-interest (Rose, 1999). Beyond the fine arts (e.g., opera, music, dance), this type of exploitation might be prevalent in other economically marginal, but symbolically significant settings (Bellah et al., 2007), such as non-profit and volunteer organizations, the public sector, education, and religious institutions. The outcomes of this study open up avenues for future research. One would be to explore work as a calling in other precarious settings, given the idolized nature of work in the 'gig economy' (Petriglieri et al., 2017). Individuals who pursue callings need to be mindful of organizations' rhetorical strategies, which can legitimize and normalize precarious and ambiguous job practices. With this warning in mind, studies can be done to investigate how callings stratify societies (Berkelaar and Buzzanell, 2015), both in terms of (a) how the construction of a calling is used to exploit employees, and (b) how framing work as a calling becomes a means for sustaining societal inequalities. Finally, while the literature on callings has highlighted the hardships of discipleship (Bunderson and Thompson, 2009), the difference between hardships and costs seems conceptually and empirically blurred. We encourage researchers to investigate this relationship with particular attention to how hardships and costs emerge in different narrative or discursive structures.

Answers

The practical implications of framing work as a calling include the potential for organizational exploitation, especially in economically marginal and symbolically significant settings, such as the fine arts, non-profit organizations, public sector, education, and religious institutions.

Workers who view their work as a calling may be vulnerable to low salaries or even unpaid labor, highlighting the risks of exploitation. This study suggests the need for further research on work as a calling in precarious settings and the impact of organizational rhetoric on perpetuating societal inequalities.

Framing work as a calling can have negative consequences, including exploitation and precarious job practices. Future studies should explore the stratification of societies based on callings, examine the exploitation of employees, and investigate how the concept of a calling contributes to societal inequalities. Additionally, research is needed to clarify the distinction between hardships and costs in relation to pursuing a calling.

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cultural provide guidance about how people should behave and what behavior is healthy. true or false?

Answers

True. Cultural norms and values often provide guidance on how people should behave and what behavior is considered healthy or acceptable within a particular society or community.

Cultural norms vary across different cultures and can encompass various aspects of behavior, including interpersonal interactions, communication styles, gender roles, social etiquette, and moral standards.

These norms encompass various aspects, such as communication styles, interpersonal interactions, gender roles, social etiquette, and moral standards. By adhering to these cultural norms, individuals ensure social cohesion and harmony within their community.

Cultural norms provide a framework for individuals to understand expectations, navigate social interactions, and maintain a sense of identity and belonging. They contribute to shaping individual behavior and the overall functioning of a society.

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QUESTION 11
The Hadza.of Tanzania are one of the few remaining cultures that lives by
O foraging
O farming
O herding camels
O herding catile

QUESTION 12
In an egalitarian society
O everyone has egual access to available resources
O social classes exist
O religion does not exist
O none of the above

QUESTION 13
In a cooperative society
O no one shares anything
O sharing is essential for survival
O being selfish is considered a positive trait
O being poor is looked down upon

GUESTION 14
The potlatch of the Northwest Coast Indians
O celebrated a special occasion
O showed off a family's wealth
O involved gift-giving, feasting, and dancing
O all of the above

QUESTION 15
Polygamy is the custom of
O having more than one husband or wife
O having numerous children
O worshipping several gods
O none ofihe above

QUESTION 16
In Niger, men may compete in a ritual beauty contest
O to win prize money
O to atract women and possibly find a wife
O to show their strength
O none of the above

QUESTION 17
The expression of gender can be expressed in adornment and body modification such as
O wearing certain kinds of jewelry
O scarification
O tattooing
O all of the above

QUESTION 18
Among women in Myanmar, gender is expressed through wearing
O brass neck rings
O tattoos
O cosmetics
O red shoes

QUESTION 19
Bride price, bride service, and dowry are all customs associated with
O choosing a political leader
O food-getting
O funerals
O marriages

QUESTION 20
In polytheistic religions
O one gad is worshipped
O many gods are worshipped
O only female gods are worshipped
O no gods are worshipped

Answers

11. Foraging

12. Everyone has equal access to available resources.

13. Sharing is essential for survival.

14. Involved gift-giving, feasting, and dancing.

15. Having more than one husband or wife.

16. To attract women and possibly find a wife.

17. All of the above (wearing certain kinds of jewelry, scarification, tattooing).

18. Brass neck rings.

19. Marriages.

20. Many gods are worshipped in polytheistic religions.

In a cooperative society like the Hadza of Tanzania (Question 11), foraging is their way of life, relying on hunting and gathering for sustenance. In such societies (Question 12), everyone has equal access to available resources, promoting a sense of equality. Cooperation and sharing (Question 13) are essential for survival and maintaining social cohesion. The potlatch of the Northwest Coast Indians (Question 14) encompassed gift-giving, feasting, and dancing, serving various purposes. Polygamy (Question 15) refers to having multiple spouses. In Niger (Question 16), men participate in beauty contests to attract potential wives. Adornment and body modification (Question 17) include wearing specific jewelry, scarification, and tattooing to express gender. Women in Myanmar (Question 18) express gender through the practice of wearing brass neck rings. Customs like bride price, bride service, and dowry (Question 19) are associated with marriage ceremonies. Finally, in polytheistic religions (Question 20), many gods are worshipped, allowing for a diverse pantheon rather than a single deity.

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the chicago school’s main laboratory for sociological research was:

Answers

Answer:

Social ecology The Chicago School’s main laboratory for sociological research was the city of Chicago itself because, the population was rapidly growing due to foreign immigration and the influx of African Americans from the rural South.

Explanation:

Prompt: Using EACH of the five theoretical viewpoints (psychoanalytic, learning, cognitive, evolutionary/sociobiological, and contextual) please respond to the problem below by suggesting how each viewpoint would attempt to explain this phenomenon.

"Why have we seen so many incidents of school violence in the last decade?"

Answers

Each of the five theoretical viewpoints (psychoanalytic, learning, cognitive, evolutionary/sociobiological, and contextual) offers a unique perspective in understanding the phenomenon of school violence. Here's how each viewpoint might attempt to explain the increase in incidents of school violence in the last decade:

Psychoanalytic viewpoint:

The psychoanalytic viewpoint, rooted in the work of Sigmund Freud, would focus on unconscious motivations and unresolved psychological conflicts. It might suggest that incidents of school violence are a manifestation of repressed anger or aggression seeking an outlet. Factors such as early childhood experiences, trauma, or disrupted attachment relationships could contribute to the development of violent tendencies in some individuals.

Learning viewpoint:

The learning viewpoint emphasizes how behavior is acquired and modified through interactions with the environment. It might propose that school violence is learned through observation, modeling, and reinforcement. Exposure to media violence, peer influence, or experiencing violence at home or in the community could shape aggressive behavior in individuals, leading to school violence.

Cognitive viewpoint:

The cognitive viewpoint examines how thinking processes and cognitive factors influence behavior. It might suggest that incidents of school violence could be attributed to distorted thinking patterns, such as cognitive biases or faulty beliefs about power, revenge, or social status. Individuals with aggressive cognitive scripts or a lack of empathy might interpret social situations in ways that justify violent responses.

Evolutionary/Sociobiological viewpoint:

The evolutionary/sociobiological viewpoint considers how behavior and psychological traits have evolved and adapted over time. It might propose that school violence is rooted in innate human tendencies, such as competition for resources, territoriality, or the need for social dominance. Evolutionary psychologists might argue that certain individuals possess a predisposition for aggression, which is expressed in the context of school settings.

Contextual viewpoint:

The contextual viewpoint emphasizes the influence of environmental and sociocultural factors on behavior. It might suggest that incidents of school violence are a result of systemic issues within the school environment, community, or society at large. Factors such as social inequalities, lack of support systems, bullying, peer pressure, or exposure to violence in the neighborhood might contribute to the occurrence of school violence.

It's important to note that these viewpoints are not mutually exclusive, and multiple factors from different perspectives can interact to contribute to the phenomenon of school violence. Understanding the complex interplay of individual, social, and environmental factors is crucial in developing effective prevention strategies and interventions to address this issue.

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more than _____ of all u.s. school-age children live with two parents.

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According to the U.S.  , more than 70% of all U.S. school-age children live with two parents (both biological or adoptive).In the United States, the majority of school-age children live with two parents.

The U.S. Census Bureau estimates that more than 70% of school-age children live with two parents, either biological or adoptive parents. There are several advantages to having both parents present in a child's life. It helps to provide a more stable family environment, better support and supervision, and a sense of security.

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a(n) __________ is a serious crime such as murder, sexual assault, arson, drug-dealing, or a theft or fraud offense of sufficient magnitude.

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A felony is a major crime, such as murder, sexual assault, arson, distributing drugs, or a sufficiently serious theft or fraud offence.

Felonies are often more serious than misdemeanours and carry harsher sanctions, such as a year or more in jail, heavy fines, probation, or a combination of these penalties. Although the designation of a crime as a felony differs between countries, it typically denotes offences that pose a greater risk of harm to people or society. The distinction between felonies and misdemeanours aids in establishing the severity of criminal offences and directs the judicial system in imposing just punishments on offenders.

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one of the chief weaknesses of the confederated form of government is that it

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One of the chief weaknesses of the confederated form of government is that it lacks a strong central government.

A confederate form of government is a type of government where the power is divided between a central government and regional or local governments. Each government has its own set of powers and responsibilities, and they work together to make decisions that affect the entire country.The main weakness of this type of government is that it lacks a strong central government. Because each government has its own set of powers, it can be difficult to coordinate and make decisions that benefit the entire country. This can lead to conflicts between the regional governments and the central government, which can make it difficult to get things done.

Another weakness of a confederate form of government is that it can be difficult to change. Because each government has its own set of powers, it can be hard to make changes to the system without the agreement of all the regional governments. This can make it difficult to address issues that affect the entire country, such as national security or economic policy.In conclusion, the lack of a strong central government and difficulty in making changes are some of the main weaknesses of a confederated form of government.

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Which is FALSE about the development of self-control?
A. It is associated with the development of the prefrontal cortex.
B. It is associated with academic performance and interpersonal skills.
C. It almost always shows continuous development, such that children with low self-control will become adults with low self-control.
D. Problems with self-control likely stem from both genetic and environmental factors.

Answers

The false statement regarding the development of self-control is C: "It almost always shows continuous development, such that children with low self-control will become adults with low self-control".

Self-control refers to the ability to regulate one’s behavior, emotions, and thoughts to achieve long-term goals and adapt to changing situations. Here are some key points related to self-control and its development:

Self-control is associated with the development of the prefrontal cortex, the part of the brain that controls executive functions, decision-making, and impulse control.Self-control is essential for academic performance, social-emotional development, and interpersonal skills.Problems with self-control can stem from both genetic and environmental factors, including prenatal exposure to stress and substances, poor nutrition, harsh parenting, poverty, and trauma.Self-control can be improved with practice and intervention, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy, mindfulness training, and executive function training.Self-control development is not always continuous, and low self-control in childhood does not necessarily lead to low self-control in adulthood. The development of self-control can be influenced by various factors throughout the lifespan, including brain plasticity, social support, and motivation.

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_____ therapy uses techniques based on learning principles to change maladaptive behavior.

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Behavioral therapy uses the principles of learning to reduce or eliminate maladaptive behavior.

Behavioral therapy is a broad term used to describe a variety of mental health treatment methods. The goal of this kind of treatment is to identify and assist in changing behaviors that could be harmful or unhealthy. It is based on the idea that all behaviors are taught and can be changed. The overarching objective is to help a client achieve their life goals by replacing unhealthy behaviors with adaptive ones.

Behavior therapy has had an impact on a wide range of contemporary psychological treatments, including cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and the third wave of mindfulness-based behavioral therapies.

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Suppose that a policy maker is considering offering free college tuition to all low-to-moderate income families in your state. There are currently 1,000 students attending college who would meet the income qualification to receive free tuition, and tuition is $10,000 per year. Which of the following is true?1).Some of the students will be disincentived from attending college because they will have to apply for the program.2)The $10,000 is a sunk cost that policymakers shouldn't consider when estimating the funds needed to administer this program. 3) Free tuition will incentivize more students to attend college, and this program will cost more than $10 million per year.4) This program will cost the state approximately $10,000 million per year.

Answers

The correct option from the given options is the third one which states that free tuition will incentivize more students to attend college, and this program will cost more than $10 million per year.

The policy maker who is considering offering free college tuition to all low-to-moderate income families in your state has several factors to consider while making the decision to provide free tuition.What will be the cost of the program?How many students will attend college?How many of these students will be new college attendees versus college attendees who are currently attending college?How will this program affect colleges and universities?In this particular scenario, there are 1000 students attending college who would meet the income qualifications to receive free tuition and tuition is $10,000 per year.

Therefore, the cost of the program will be 1000*$10,000=$10 million per year.Free tuition will incentivize more students to attend college, but policymakers should consider the costs associated with this program when estimating the funds needed to administer this program. Thus, the third option is correct.

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The McMartin preschool case is important to the study of _________ and _____
O the influence of false promises to children; their likelihood to embellish upon stories suggested to them
O the role of suggestive interviewing; it's influence on false accusations
O child development; role of suggestibility in preschool behavior
O police and social worker interview tactics; the likelihood of the children to accept a reward

Answers

Answer: The McMartin preschool case is important to the study of child development and the role of suggestibility in preschool behavior.

Explanation:

The McMartin preschool case was a highly publicized child abuse case in the 1980s. The case began with accusations of child abuse against the owners of the McMartin Preschool. The accusations were made by several children who attended the school. The case was notable for its duration, complexity, and the number of children involved. During the investigation and trial, the methods used to interview the children were called into question. It was found that the children were subjected to suggestive interviewing techniques, which led them to provide false accusations. The case demonstrated the potential for young children to be influenced by suggestive questioning and the need for appropriate interviewing techniques in cases involving child abuse allegations. Therefore, the McMartin preschool case is important to the study of child development and the role of suggestibility in preschool behavior.

Which of the following would most likely result from too much stress?A.Low employee turnoverB.Inadequate communicationC.Reduced job performanceD.Increased level of passive listening

Answers

The most likely result of too much stress is reduced job performance. Excessive stress can have negative effects on individuals, including their job performance.

The option (C) is correct.

When individuals experience high levels of stress, it can impair their cognitive abilities, decision-making, concentration, and overall productivity. They may struggle to focus on tasks, make errors, and have difficulty meeting deadlines.

Stress can also lead to fatigue, burnout, and decreased motivation, which further contributes to reduced job performance. The physical and emotional toll of stress can affect an individual's ability to perform at their best and meet the demands of their job effectively. However, reduced job performance is a commonly observed outcome when stress levels become overwhelming and unmanaged.

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Sullivan-Swyt Mining Company must install new machinery in its Nevada mine, It can obtain a bank loan for 100% of the after-tax cost of the machinery. Alternatively, a Nevada investment banking firm that represents a group of investors believes that it can arrange for a lease financing plan. Assume that the following facts apply? 1. The after-tax oost of the machinery is $950,000, and that will be the amount of the bank loan. 2. Estimated maintenance expenses are $60,000 per year. 3. Sullivan-Swift's federal-plus-state tax rate is 25%. 4. If the money is borrowed, the bank loan will be at a rate of 12%, amortized in 4 equal installments to be paid at the end of each year. 5. The tentative fease terms call for end-of year payments of $300,000 per year for 4 years. 6. Under the proposed lease terms, the lessee must pay for insurance, property taxes, and maintenance. 7. The equipment has an estimated salvage value of $300,000, which is the expected market value after 4 years, at which tame Sulfivan-5wift plans to replace the equpment regardless of whether the firm leases of purchases it. The best estimate for the salvage value is $300,000, but it may be much higher or lawer under certain circumstances. (Note that that equipment was fully depreciated at the time of purchase, so the book value of the equipment is zero.)To assist management in making the proper lease-versus-buy decision, you are asked to answer the following questions: Assuning that the lease can be arranged, should Sullivan-5witt lease of borrow and buy the equipment? Do not round intermediate calculations. flound your ariswer to the nearest toltar, fnout the minus sign if the cost of leasing the machinery is more than the cost of owning it. Net advantage to leasing (NAL) is Airports A and B are 441 km apart, on an east-west line. Jim flies in a northeast direction from A to airport C. 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