The primary function of the humoral, or antibody-mediated, immune response is to control freely circulating pathogens is a "true" statement.
What is humoral, or antibody-mediated?Antibody-mediated immunity is another name for homunculus immunity.
Some key features of humoral are-
B cells will develop into plasma B cells, which can manufacture antibodies against a particular antigen, with the aid of helper T cells. The humoral system reacts to pathogen antigens that are in the environment or outside of the diseased cells. By binding to antigens, antibodies made by B cells either neutralize them or trigger lysis (the breakdown or apoptosis of cells by an isozyme) or phagocytosis.T lymphocytes have a role in the cellular immunity that takes place inside infected cells. The cell surface or an antigen-presenting cell expresses the pathogen's antigens. Helper T cells promote inflammation that enable activated T cells to attach to the MHC-antigen complex of infected cells and develop into cytotoxic T cells. After that, the infected cell is lysed.To know more about humoral immunity, here
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Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase are each subject to ________ control.
Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase are each subject to Allosteric control.
What is significant about the enzymes phosphofructokinase and hexokinase?
The following key aspects of glycolysis are covered: Using the power of ATP, an enzyme known as hexokinase converts glucose into glucose-6-phosphate by adding a phosphate group. Similar to this, an enzyme known as phosphofructokinase uses ATP to modify fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1,6-diphosphate by adding a phosphate group.Allosteric Enzyme -
An allosteric enzyme is an enzyme that contains a region to which small, regulatory molecules ("effectors") may bind in addition to and separate from the substrate binding site and thereby affect the catalytic activity.
What is a allosteric effect?
The binding of a ligand to one site on a protein molecule in such a way that the properties of another site on the same protein are affected.
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Mary Matthews was found to have a breast lump during a mammogram last month. She is admitted today for a breast biopsy of her left breast. The pathology report returns with infiltrating papillary breast carcinoma of the left breast. Mary’s mother had breast cancer in her fifties. What is the correct code assignment?
The correct code for Mary's breast carcinoma assignment is C50.912, Z80.3 and is denoted as option D.
What is Medical coding?This is referred to the process ion which diagnosis, treatment etc is translated into numeric or alphanumeric letters.
The code C50.912 represents breast carcinoma in females while Z80.3 means that there was a family history which resulted in its occurrence which is specified by Mary's mother experiencing it too.
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The options include:
A) D05.12
B) D05.12, Z80.3
C) C50.312
D) C50.912, Z80.3
A recent study compared the vaccination histories of 256 children with autism spectrum disorder with that of 752 control children across three time periods during their first two years of life. Researchers found that ________.
Autism development was not at all correlated with the number of immunogens from vaccines received during the first two years of life.
This was what was found out by the researchers.
A recent study compared the vaccination histories of 256 children with autism spectrum disorder with that of 752 control children across three time periods during their first two years of life. Researchers found that
Autism development was not at all correlated with the number of immunogens from vaccines received during the first two years of life.
What is autism spectrum disorder?A neurological and developmental condition known as autism spectrum disorder (ASD) has an impact on how people connect with others, communicate, learn, and conduct. Autism is classified as a "developmental condition" since symptoms often occur in the first two years of life, even though it can be diagnosed at any age.Which 5 conditions make the autism spectrum?Asperger's syndrome Rett syndromeChildhood disintegrative disorderKanner's syndrome pervasive developmental disorder-not otherwise specified are the five main kinds of autism.What is the primary reason behind autism?Although the exact cause of autism spectrum disease is unknown, it is widely believed that anomalies in brain structure or function are to blame. Youngsters with autism have a different brain shape and structure than children with neurotypical development, according to brain scans.What are the primary three signs of autism?The following signs of autism in youngsters should be on the lookout for:
delayed benchmarksa youngster with social anxietythe youngster who struggles to communicate both verbally and nonverbally.To learn more about autism spectrum disorder visit:
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Categorize the following situation as legal, ethical, neither, or both: a nurse reports a coworker who is pocketing drugs from a drawer in a patient's room. a. ethical b. legal c. both legal and ethical d. neither legal nor ethical
What is a legal ethical issue?
Since ethical issues are not governed by a set of laws, they cannot be punished by them. Legal issues are governed by a set of rules, and breaking those norms is penalised by the law.How do you identify legal and ethical issues?
You must consider the implications of the issue in order to decide whether it is lawful or ethical. The issue is legal if there are any potential legal repercussions. Therefore, ethical challenges are typically those that fall outside of the legal system.What is the difference between legal and ethical nursing practice?
The human concepts of good and wrong serve as the foundation for ethical norms. They differ in the following ways: While ethical standards are based on human rights and wrongs, legal standards are based on written law. Anything is possible.Learn more about legal ethical issue
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The examination of the physical and chemical properties of urine to determine the presence of abnormal elements is known as?
Urinalysis is the examination of the physical and chemical properties of urine to determine the presence of abnormal elements.
What is urinalysis?Urinalysis the examination of the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine and it includes several tests to detect and measure different compounds that pass through the urine.
Urine is a yellowish aqueous solution that contain more that 95%of water.It contain sodium, chloride, potassium, and creatinine including other ions with organic and inorganic compound.
Observation of color, odor, clarity, volume of urine is the physical examination as these are physical properties of urine.
Therefore, urinalysis is the examination of the physical and chemical properties of urine to determine the abnormal elements present in urine.
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A Corrective Exercise Specialist is implementing a static stretching program with a youth basketball team. What are the recommended acute training variables this type of stretching?
The recommended acute training variables this type of stretching are "Hold 20-30 sec and repeat 1-4 reps daily."
What is stretching?Stretching is a practice that helps people stay young by releasing tension from their muscles, joint, ligaments, and tendons.
Five different types of stretching exist:
Dynamic Stretching: Dynamic stretching is just a sort of movement-based stretching that makes use of the muscles' natural ability to extend themselves.Static Stretching: Stretching known as static stretching involves remaining in one posture for a brief amount of time, usually shorter than a minute. Ballistic Stretching: Stretching is a technique that aims to stretch a body part further than its natural range of motion. Passive Stretching: stretching passively things we do! In this kind of stretching, you remain still for an extended amount of time. PNF stretching: PNF stretching, also known as proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, is a technique for stretching that involves holding and releasing the muscle or contracting and releasing the muscle to achieve the greatest possible range of motion.To know more about stretching/flexibility development, here
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An older relative is living in a nursing facility for long-term care. They are given rigid routines and not given much independence for choice of activities. He/she is also not allowed to keep personal possessions in the room other than photos. As a result, your older relative is likely: Group of answer choices
Answer:
they are likely to harm themselves or others
Explanation:
this could make someone really sad so theu would get angry
Exercise therapy uses all of the following types of exercise during treatment except.
Exercise therapy uses all of the following types of exercise during treatment except resistance training.
Which three forms of resistance workouts are there?Progressive resistance exercises often fall into one of three categories: isotonic, isokinetic, or isometric. Through the use of an external load and an ever-changing speed throughout the range of motion, a muscle group is put through its full range of motion during isotonic training.What can be used to practice resistance?Resistance training examples:
Weighted balls or bags, such as medicine balls or sandbags.Weight machines are chairs with movable handles that are either connected to weights or hydraulics.The Principles of Resistance TrainingOverload PrincipleResistance Principle ProgressiveThe Principle of Arrangement of ExerciseSpecificity PrincipleTo learn more about resistance exercise visit:
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The _____ requirement is meant to ensure that defendants understand the charges they are facing and can work with their lawyers to prepare and conduct an adequate defense.
The Competence requirement is meant to ensure that defendants understand the charges they are facing and can work with their lawyers to prepare and conduct an adequate defense.
Rule 1.1: Competence:
A lawyer shall provide competent representation to a client. Competent representation requires the legal knowledge, skill, thoroughness and preparation reasonably necessary for the representation.
In 2012, the ABA added an eighth comment to this rule, which clarifies that rule 1.1 should be interpreted to mean that attorneys must maintain technological competence.
To maintain the requisite knowledge and skill, a lawyer should keep abreast of changes in the law and its practice, including the benefits and risks associated with relevant technology, engage in continuing study and education and comply with all continuing legal education requirements to which the lawyer is subject.
The most common areas this rule have been applied to relate to data security, and effective use of technologies commonly used in the practice of law (such as email, storage of documents, office software, etc.). Increasingly, other areas of technology are being discussed in this context. For example, some consider an understanding of social media technologies a core competence for attorneys. Another common area is e-discovery.
As technology evolves and is implemented by lawyers, the actual requirements of the duty of technological competence will change. The mandate is to keep up with the trends.
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The last step in preparing to draw blood for testing is to review the written testing request
A. True
B. False
Answer: False
Explanation:
Reviewing the written testing request is one of the first steps in preparing to draw blood for testing.
Using the textbook, required articles and recommended resources, construct a 5-6 item questionnaire on a topic of your choice. Your questionnaire can include either open-ended or closed-ended (fixed format) questions. Submit your completed questionnaire to this discussion forum.
Be sure to consider the following when responding:
What are the strengths and weaknesses of the questionnaire overall?
Consider how the items are worded and the response choices, if applicable, are provided.
Are the questions clear and concise?
Are there any questions that are vague or unclear?
If applicable, are the response choices effective?
Is there only one correct response choice?
Are there any unintentional cues to the correct answer?
Do the items appear to be a good measure of what the student is wanting to assess?
How could the questionnaire be improved?
How many daughter cells are in each daughter cell in humans?
How many divisions happen in mitosis?
What type of cellular reproduction is the process of mitosis?
How mitosis in animal cells differs from mitosis in plant cells?
Why cell division is important?
How many daughter cells are in each daughter cell in humans?When the mitosis ends, the two daughter cells are produced which will be exact copies of the original cell. Each daughter cell will have same number of chromosomes.
How many divisions happen in mitosis?Mitosis is a process of cell division that results in two genetically identical daughter cells developing from a single parent cell so we can say that there is only one division occur in mitosis.
What type of cellular reproduction is the process of mitosis?Mitosis is a type of asexual reproduction because it occurs in the somatic cells of the body. In this division, one parent cell divides into two halves.
How mitosis in animal cells differs from mitosis in plant cells?The most important difference between plant and animal mitosis is the process of cytokinesis. In plants this process forms a cell plate whereas in animals a cleavage is created.
Are the questions clear and concise?Yes, the questions are clear and concise which give us clear thought about the question and avoid confusion in it.
Are there any questions that are vague or unclear?
No, there is no question that are vague or unclear. All the question has one clear thought that make easier for the person who answer that question.
Do the items appear to be a good measure of what the student is wanting to assess?Yes, the items appear to be a good measure of what the student is wanting to assess because these question can improved their knowledge and clear their thoughts.
How could the questionnaire be improved?There is no need for the improvement of the questionnaire because it includes good use of words which make things clear for the person who answer it.
Why cell division is important?Cell division plays an important role in all living organisms, as it is essential for growth, repair and reproduction. This process helps in: Renewing of damaged cells. Production of new cells from older ones.
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What are the benefits of performing a clia-waived rapid test in the medical office?.
Providing the physician with a positive indication of the problem, allowing treatment to be started early, and being convenient for the patient.
What is CLIA-waived test and its benefits?Results from laboratory tests are used by medical professionals to diagnose illness, estimate a patient's prognosis, and keep track of their treatment or general health. Medical choices are increasingly being made in accordance with current practice based on quick testing completed at the point of service. With a Certificate of Waiver from the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), many of these test systems are exempt from routine regulatory inspection under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA).
The following are some advantages of performing waived testing: prompt results availability while the patient is available for immediate follow-upbasic tests require little trainingportability of many waived tests makes testing simpler in unconventional settings.Learn more about CLIA waived test here:
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Microscoe how would you check to see if the pre-focusing lever was in the 'locked' position?
The mechanism of the microscope prevents the revolving nosepiece from being lowered to the lower limit when the pre-focusing lever is locked since it reduces the stroke's coarseness.
A pre-focusing lever makes sure the objective doesn't touch the sample and makes focusing easier.The lower limit on coarse adjustment movement is set at the locked position. After focusing on the specimen using the coarse adjustment knob, turn this lever in the direction of the arrow and lock.After switching out a specimen, it is simple to approximate refocus by turning the coarse adjustment knob until it is in the pre-focused position. The objective's vertical movement, which is activated by the fine adjustment knob, is not locked after this; all that's left to do is make fine adjustments with it.learn more about microscope here:
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Which procedure involves the direct visualization of the cervical canal and the uterine cavity and is performed to examine the endometrium?.
Answer: HYSTEROSCOPY
Explanation:
HYSTEROSCOPY
What will happen to the urine volume if adh is not added to the collecting duct?.
The urine volume would enhance if ADH was not added to the collecting duct. This is because the ADH works on the collecting ducts where the increase permeability for water is improved, so less water is perspired into the urine, so urine evolves more concentrated.
What happens to urine volume when ADH advances?ADH improves the permeability to water of the distal serpentine tubule and collecting duct, which is normally impervious to water. This effect causes heightened water reabsorption and retention and reduces the volume of urine produced comparable to its ion content.In SIADH, the body is unable to subdue the secretion of ADH, conducting to insufficient water excretion and reduced urine output. Normally, when water is ingested, serum tonicity and osmolality reduction, and ADH are quelled, resulting in an output of dilute (less concentrated) urine.A hormone that allows blood vessels narrow and helps the kidneys control the portion of water and salt in the body. This enables the control of blood pressure and the quantity of urine that is made. Antidiuretic hormone is made by a portion of the brain called the hypothalamus and is perspired into the blood by the pituitary gland.To learn more about ADH advances, refer to:
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If a person is having a seizure on a bus or train, it is okay to allow them to have the seizure in the aisle. True or false?.
If a person is having a seizure on a bus or train, it is okay to allow them to have the seizure in the aisle. The statement is true.
What is seizure?Seizure is a sudden or an abrupt attack that occurs when there is disturbance in the electrical network of the brain.
Seizure is caused by the following:
high levels of salt or sugar in your blood; brain injury from a stroke or head injury brain problems you are born with ora brain tumor.During travel, a person that is having seizure should be allowed to an aisle or bulkhead seat on the plane may be more comfortable.
Therefore, If a person is having a seizure on a bus or train, it is okay to allow them to have the seizure in the aisle.
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A nurse is caring for a child admitted with an acute exacerbation of asthma. Discuss the nursing care needs of this child. True or false?.
The nurse should check to see if the airway is clear before checking the vital signs, particularly the RR and O₂ sat.
The nurse needs to listen for breath sounds. A severe asthma episode should be identified by the nurse if there are diminished and dispersed breath sounds. The nurse needs to evaluate WOB and I/O. The nurse should have oxygen and a bronchodilator on hand. Possibly fluids, steroids, and/or IV antibiotics.
What is an acute exacerbation of asthma?A persistent respiratory disorder called asthma results in inflammation and airway constriction. Exacerbations of asthma are times when a person's asthma gets worse or develops new symptoms. Exacerbations, commonly known as asthma attacks, can occasionally occur suddenly. Coughing, wheezing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath are signs of asthma exacerbations. While they are sleeping, some people may also breathe quickly or gasp for air.
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Explain one (1) thing you learned from the coding guidelines for Surgery of Skull Base preceding the codes (61580-61619) in the Nervous System subsection of the CPT manual.
In your own words, summarize what you think that coding guideline (from question 1) is instructing the coder to do when assigning codes for those types of services.
Describe how you will apply that coding guideline (from question 1) when assigning codes for those types of services.
learned from the coding guidelines for Skull Base Surgery prior to codes (61580-61619) in the Nervous System subsection of the CPT manual Monitoring intracranial pressure (2.02.02.06-7): code used for assessment of intracranial pressure, which is starts from the surgical moment of the ICP catheter installation, until the daily follow-ups, for visit/day. The assessment and conduct must be described in the patient's medical record. Value/day of monitoring neurological patient. Together with the other parameters of neurointensivism, this exam is part of the multimodal assessment of neurocritical patients.
In your own words, summarize what you think the coding guideline (from question 1) is instructing the coder to do when assigning codes to these types of services.Instructs the coder to understand the processes being carried out and the current state of the patient.
With this information, we can conclude that Manual of Coding Procedures Guidelines in Neurosurgery, is fully supported by legality and ethics and in absolute accordance with the regulations of our professional and supervisory bodies, the Code of Medical Ethics and the Federal Constitution.
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How would pelvic inflammatory disease affect the Pap smear report?
_____ are the cells of the innate immune system that digest cellular debris and pathogens.
Macrophages are the cells of the innate immune system that digest cellular debris and pathogens.
The two macrophages and dendritic cells immerse microbes and cell trash through phagocytosis. A neutrophil is likewise a phagocytic leukocyte that overwhelms and processes microorganisms. Neutrophils, are the most plentiful leukocytes of the resistant framework.
What is Innate Immune Response?Innate and adaptive immune responses are both part of the immune system.Innate immunity develops spontaneously as a result of genetic factors or physiology; it is not generated by illness or vaccination, but instead works to minimize the burden for the adaptive immune response. Secreted proteins, receptor-mediated signaling, and complicated cell-to-cell communication are all part of the immune response at both the innate and adaptive levels. The innate immune system evolved as a crucial response to infection early in animal history, around a billion years ago.To learn more about inate immune system from the given link
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According to the frustration aggression theory, what would you expect to happen after Mekayla bombs her performance at the piano recital?
a. Mekayla kicks her cat.
b. Mekayla eats a sandwich.
c. Mekayla meditates.
d. Mekayla takes a nap.
Answer:
a. Mekayla kicks her cat.
Explanation:
The frustration aggression theory simply states that aggression is a result of frustration.
Obviously, Mekayla would be frustrated after bombing her piano recital and would show aggressive behavior. Eating a sandwich, meditating and taking a nap are NOT signs of aggressive behavior. Therefore, the correct option is a. Mekayla kicks her cat, which is a sign of aggression.
During periods of declining water levels, blood volume decreases, causing a decline in blood pressure. This is referred to as ____________.
An sds not required when two circumstances are met what are they
Physical hazard and health hazard are not required for SDS.
What is not required on the SDS?Anything that is not present in physical hazard as well as in health hazards is not hazardous and, therefore, it does not require an SDS. The SDS is defined as the information about the properties of each chemical; the physical, health, and environmental health hazards; protective measures; and safety precautions which is about handling, storing, and transporting the chemical things.
So we can conclude that Physical hazard and health hazard are not required for SDS.
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Those who have seizures suffer from a chronic neurological disorder called epilepsy. True or false?.
Answer: False
Explanation: I have epilepsy
There are many other conditions that cause seizures such as PNES. <3
While epeilepsy is most common, it is not the only cause.
When caring for a client who is post–intracranial surgery what is the most important parameter to monitor?
When caring for a client who is post-intracranial surgery, the most important parameter to monitor is body temperature.
What is the link between intracranial surgery and body temperature?Intracranial surgery involves surgery of the brain or spine present within the skull.During the first week after intracranial surgery, patients tend to develop fever therefore, it is necessary to monitor body temperature regularly.An injury in the brain can affect a person’s ability to regulate temperature leading to uncontrolled fluctuations between hot and cold temperature which has a bad effect on the health.Post cranial surgery can also lead to fatigue, swelling in brain, pain, swollen lymph nodes in armpits, neck.Intracranial surgery can cause bleeding, blood clots, uneven blood pressure.Learn more about post intracranial surgery here:
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Status epilepticus is seizure activity that lasts longer than five minutes or when seizures occur one right after the other in a short amount of time. T or f.
Answer: True
Explanation: A seizure that lasts longer than 5 minutes, or having more than 1 seizure within a 5 minutes period, without returning to a normal level of consciousness between episodes is called status epilepticus. This is a medical emergency that may lead to permanent brain damage or death.
The given statement exists true. A seizure that stays longer than 5 minutes, or having better than 1 seizure within 5 minutes, without replacing a normal level of consciousness between episodes exists named status epilepticus. This exists a medical emergency that may direct to permanent brain injury or death.
How long do status epilepticus seizures last?Years ago, a seizure must last longer than 20 minutes to be regarded as status epilepticus. In the last few years, it exists now described as any seizure more significant than 5 minutes. This creates sense because most seizures do not stay longer than 2 minutes.
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Despite positive pressure ventilation, a newborn's heart rate has fallen from 80 beats per minute to 40. He is breathing 40 breaths per minute and has a mottled appearance. Your next action would be to:
Your next action would be to start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Pulse. A newborn's pulse is normally 120 to 160 beats per minute. Breathing rate. A newborn's breathing rate is normally 40 to 60 breaths per minute.
What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation used for?
In an emergency, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can help save a person's life if their breathing or heart stops. A person is in cardiac arrest when their heart stops beating.
Is cardiopulmonary resuscitation the same as CPR?
When someone's breathing or heartbeat have stopped due to an emergency, such as a heart attack or a near-drowning, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can help save their life. The American Heart Association advises performing quick, forceful chest compressions to begin CPR.What are the 7 steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
The seven steps of CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) are to assess the situation and the patient, ask for aid by dialing 911, open the airway, check for breathing, apply chest compressions, administer rescue breaths, and repeat.
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Chronic alcohol intoxication, lead toxicity, and infectious diseases are possible causes of a. neuroblastoma. b. trigeminal neuralgia. c. peripheral neuritis.
Option-C Peripheral neuritis is the correct answer.
Chronic alcohol intoxication, lead toxicity, and infectious diseases are possible causes of peripheral neuritis.
What is Peripheral neuropathy or Peripheral neuritis?
Peripheral neuropathy describes the disorders that happen when the nerves that transmit signals from and to the rest of the body to and from the brain and spinal cord are injured or ill.The brain and spinal cord are linked to the muscles, skin, and internal organs through a complex network of peripheral nerves.The dermatomes are lines on the body where peripheral nerves are organized after exiting the spinal cord. Usually, when a nerve is damaged, one or more dermatomes are impacted, and these dermatomes can be traced to particular body regions. Damage to these neurons prevents the brain from communicating with other body parts, disrupts feeling in the arms and legs, and can affect muscle action. Causes of peripheral neuropathy-Environmental factors like chemicals, trauma, disease, or infection can lead to acquired neuropathies. Acquired neuropathies can be brought on by Diabetes .Several uncommon hereditary illnesses alcoholism vitamin shortage or inadequate nutrition certain cancer types and the chemotherapy used to treat them conditions in which the body's immune system damages neurons by accidentally attacking them or when it overreacts to an injury certain medicines thyroid or kidney illness.There are fewer cases of hereditary neuropathies. Peripheral nerve disorders known as hereditary neuropathies are transmitted genetically from father to kid. Type 1 Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is the most prevalent of them. Leg and, to a lesser extent, arm weakness are its hallmarks; symptoms typically start to show between the middle of childhood and age 30. The insulation that ordinarily surrounds the nerves and aids in the conductance of the electrical impulses necessary for the nerves to induce muscular movement is degenerating, which is the underlying cause of this condition.To learn more about Peripheral neuritis click here-
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The femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery after passing the inguinal ligament. True or false?.
False
The popliteal artery, which starts at the level of the adductor hiatus in the adductor magnus muscle of the thigh, is a continuation of the femoral artery. As it descends farther, it crosses the popliteal fossa, which is located behind the knee.
What is Femoral artery ?The femoral artery is a significant blood vessel that supplies blood to the body's lower limbs. The iliac artery, which is found in the pelvis, is where the artery originates. Blood is pumped through the legs via the femoral artery, which originates in the lower abdomen and passes through the thigh.
What is Popliteal artery ?The popliteal artery is a direct continuation of the superficial femoral artery and is found behind the knee in the popliteal fossa after passing through the adductor hiatus.
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For a 2,000-calorie diet, how many cups of milk or the equivalent per day does myplate recommend?
3 cups of milk, or the equivalent, per day are advised for only a 2,000 caloric diet, according to My-Plate.
My-Plate recommendation:
According to My-Plate recommendation, the dairy category covers dairy products such as milk, yogurt, cheese, lactose-free milk, fortified soy milk, and yogurt. It excludes dairy products with high fat and low calcium content including cream cheese, sour cream, cream, and butter.Human age, height, weight, degree of physical activity, and the quantity of dairy required will all affect how much you need. The quantity for women may also change depending on whether they are nursing or pregnant. My-Plate study shows that about 90% of Americans do not consume enough dairy, thus most people would benefit from increasing their diet of fat-free or low-fat dairy products, whether they come from milk (including lactose-free milk), yogurt, or cheese.Learn more about My-Plate here:
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