The factors that affect a company's P/Q rating for UAV drones include the caliber of the built-in GPS/Wi-Fi/Bluetooth components, rotor performance and flight controller features/cappabilities, and body frame construction. the company's brand reputation, the warranty claim rate, and the size of the assembly quality incentives paid to drone PAT members. the image sensors of the built-in camera, the image quality of the action videos, the length of the warranty period, and the hourly wage rate paid to members of drone PATS. the assembly quality incentives paid to drone PAT members, the company's prior-year brand reputation, and the prior-year worldwide average warranty claim rate on the company's drones. the caliber of the built-in action capture camera, warranty claim costs, the company's prior- year worldwide share of UAV drone sales, and whether the company's drone line-up consists of 5 or more models.

Answers

Answer 1

The factors that affect a company's P/Q rating for UAV drones include: Caliber of the built-in GPS/Wi-Fi/Bluetooth components Rotor performance and flight controller features/capabilities.

Body frame construction

Company's brand reputation

Warranty claim rate

Size of the assembly quality incentives paid to drone PAT members

Image sensors of the built-in camera

Image quality of the action videos

Length of the warranty period

Hourly wage rate paid to members of drone PATs

Company's prior-year brand reputation

Prior-year worldwide average warranty claim rate on the company's drones

Caliber of the built-in action capture camera

Warranty claim costs

Company's prior-year worldwide share of UAV drone sales

Whether the company's drone line-up consists of 5 or more models.

These factors collectively contribute to the P/Q (Price/Quality) rating of UAV drones. The P/Q rating is a measure of the price-to-quality ratio, which indicates the perceived value or quality of a product in relation to its price. Different aspects, such as technical specifications, performance, brand reputation, warranty terms, and market share, are considered when assessing the P/Q rating of UAV drones.

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Related Questions

At the beginning of the year, Mitt Corporation bought machinery, shelving, and a forklift. The machinery initially cost $27,600 but had to be overhauled (at a cost of $1,600 ) before it could be installed (at a cost of $800 ) and finally put into use. The machinery's total life was estimated as 40,000 hours, with an estimated residual value of $1,000. The machinery was actually used 5,000 hours in year 1 and 7,000 hours in year 2 . Repair costs were $400 in each year.
The shelving cost $9,550 and was expected to last 5 years, with a residual value of $650. The forklift cost $13,050 and was expected to last six years, with a residual value of $2,100.
Compute year 2 units-of-production depreciation expense for the machinery. (Do not round intermediate alculations.)

Answers

The year 2 units-of-production depreciation expense for the machinery can be determined by multiplying the number of hours used in year 2 by the depreciation rate per hour.

To calculate the depreciation expense for year 2, we need to determine the depreciation rate per hour for the machinery. The machinery has a total estimated life of 40,000 hours and an estimated residual value of $1,000. Therefore, the depreciable base is the initial cost minus the residual value, which is $27,600 - $1,000 = $26,600.

The depreciation rate per hour can be calculated by dividing the depreciable base by the total estimated hours of usage, which is $26,600 / 40,000 hours = $0.665 per hour.

In year 2, the machinery was used for 7,000 hours. To calculate the depreciation expense, we multiply the number of hours used in year 2 by the depreciation rate per hour: $0.665 per hour * 7,000 hours = $4,655. Therefore, the year 2 units-of-production depreciation expense for the machinery is $4,655.

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Bridgeport Company is considering the purchase of a new machine. The invoice price of the machine is $83,030, freight charges are estimated to be $3,990, and installation costs are expected to be $7,600. The annual cost savings are expected to be $19,000 for 10 years, Calculate the cash payback period. (Round answer to 2 decimal places, eg. 15.25.) years eTextbook and Media

Answers

The cash payback period for the investment in the new machine is approximately 0.50 years (or 0 years and 6 months).

To calculate the cash payback period, we need to determine how long it will take for the cumulative cash inflows to equal or exceed the initial investment.

Step 1: Calculate the initial investment

Initial investment = Invoice price + Freight charges + Installation costs

Initial investment = $83,030 + $3,990 + $7,600

Initial investment = $94,620

Step 2: Calculate the annual cash inflow

Annual cash inflow = Annual cost savings

Annual cash inflow = $19,000

Step 3: Determine the cash inflows per year

Cash inflows per year = Annual cash inflow × Number of years

Cash inflows per year = $19,000 × 10

Cash inflows per year = $190,000

Step 4: Calculate the cumulative cash inflows

Cumulative cash inflows = Cash inflows per year × Number of years

Cumulative cash inflows = $190,000 × Number of years

Step 5: Determine the cash payback period

Cash payback period is the number of years it takes for the cumulative cash inflows to equal or exceed the initial investment. We can calculate it by dividing the initial investment by the cash inflows per year.

Cash payback period = Initial investment / Cash inflows per year

Cash payback period = $94,620 / $190,000

Cash payback period ≈ 0.50 years

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The Single Audit Act intends that auditors conducting regular financial audits of state and local governments and not-for-profits organizations provide assurance to the federal government that:
Multiple Choice
a Federal funds have been expended in accordance with laws and regulations.
b Federal funds are protected through a system of internal controls and sound financial management practices.
c Both of the choices are correct.
d Neither of the choices is correct.

Answers

The Single Audit Act intends that auditors conducting regular financial audits of state and local governments and not-for-profits organizations provide assurance to the federal government that Federal funds have been expended in accordance with laws and regulations

The Single Audit Act is a federal legislation that aims to promote the efficient and effective use of federal grants. It sets the foundation for audits that help to enhance accountability and transparency by standardizing audit requirements for recipients who receive federal assistance.

A Single Audit is an audit of a recipient's financial statements and federal awards that determine whether the recipient followed the federal government's grant requirements. The Single Audit Act of 1984, as amended, and the U.S. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations in Title 2 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Part 200, Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (Uniform Guidance), require that any nonfederal entity that expends $750,000 or more in federal grants during a fiscal year must have a single audit.

Therefore, federal funds have been expended in accordance with laws and regulations.

Hence, the option (a) is correct.

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Henderson Office Supplies is considering a more liberal credit policy to increase sales, but it expects that 5 percent of the new accounts will be uncollectible. Collection costs are 4 percent of new sales, production costs are 80 percent of sales, and accounts receivable turnover is four times. Assume an increase in sales of $73,000. No other asset buildup will be required to service the new accounts.

a. What is the level of investment in accounts receivable to support this sales expansion?

Investment in accounts receivable $

b. What would be Henderson’s incremental before‐tax return on investment?

Return on incremental investment %

Answers

a. The level of investment in accounts receivable to support this sales expansion is $299,684.21. b. Henderson's incremental before-tax return on investment would be approximately 3.29%.

To calculate the level of investment in accounts receivable and the incremental before-tax return on investment for Henderson Office Supplies, we need to consider the given information:

Sales increase: $73,000

Uncollectible accounts: 5% of new accounts

Collection costs: 4% of new sales

Production costs: 80% of sales

Accounts receivable turnover: 4 times

a. Calculation of investment in accounts receivable:

The investment in accounts receivable can be calculated using the formula:

Investment in accounts receivable = (Accounts receivable turnover) * (Average accounts receivable balance)

Since the accounts receivable turnover is given as four times, we need to find the average accounts receivable balance.

Average accounts receivable balance = (Total sales / Accounts receivable turnover)

Total sales = Sales increase + Current sales

Current sales = Sales increase / (1 - Uncollectible accounts)

Current sales = $73,000 / (1 - 0.05) = $73,000 / 0.95 = $76,842.11

Average accounts receivable balance = ($73,000 + $76,842.11) / 2 = $74,921.05

Investment in accounts receivable = 4 * $74,921.05 = $299,684.21

Therefore, the level of investment in accounts receivable to support this sales expansion is $299,684.21.

b. Calculation of incremental before-tax return on investment:

Incremental before-tax return on investment can be calculated using the formula:

Return on incremental investment = (Incremental profit before tax / Incremental investment) * 100

Incremental profit before tax = Incremental sales * (1 - Collection costs - Production costs)

Incremental sales = Sales increase - Uncollectible accounts

Incremental sales = $73,000 - (0.05 * $73,000) = $69,350

Incremental profit before tax = $69,350 * (1 - 0.04 - 0.8) = $9,870

Return on incremental investment = ($9,870 / $299,684.21) * 100 ≈ 3.29%

Therefore, Henderson's incremental before-tax return on investment would be approximately 3.29%.

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Identify threats in Macy's (and/or external environment) and answer the following questions:

How is this threat related to serving the needs of our target market?

What actions must the organization take to prevent this threat from limiting the capabilities of the organization?

Answers

Macy's is facing a number of threats that have a direct effect on its ability to serve the needs of its target market. The following are some of the threats Macy's is facing: Changes in consumer preferences.

The increase of online shopping Competition from other retailers such as Amazon Changes in the economy, including recessions and inflation Changing trends and stylesThe following are the steps Macy's can take to mitigate these threats:Re-branding or repositioning of the company and its products. Macy's can alter its marketing campaigns to match current trends and shifting customer tastes. This would help the company stay up-to-date and relevant, which would appeal to its target market.

It can also expand its product lines to provide a wider range of products for its target market.Investing in the e-commerce platform. Macy's can invest in e-commerce to boost its online presence. This will help Macy's remain competitive with online retailers such as Amazon and capture a portion of the growing e-commerce market.Improve customer service. Macy's can enhance its customer service to maintain a loyal customer base.

This can be accomplished through improved sales personnel training and compensation, higher incentives to loyal customers, and improved services such as same-day delivery or in-store pickup options.Restructuring business model. Macy's can restructure its business model to optimize efficiency and minimize costs. This may involve reducing the number of stores, relocating stores to more convenient locations, or improving the distribution chain to reduce costs. Macy's can also explore expanding into new markets to increase the customer base.

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Question 2

Which of the following is not a potential disadvantage to free trade?

Group of answer choices

Free trade can force countries to consume a combination of goods inside their own production possibilities frontier.

Free trade can lock countries into producing goods in which they have a short-run comparative advantage.

Free trade can allow powerful countries to capture most of the gains from trade.

Free trade can lead to a "race to the bottom" in social and environmental regulations.

Answers

Free trade refers to the removal of barriers to trade and the creation of a global marketplace in which countries are free to trade goods and services with each other without government intervention. Free trade can be beneficial for countries as it increases efficiency, promotes economic growth, and leads to the specialization of countries in the production of goods and services they are most efficient at producing.

However, free trade can also have negative effects on society and the environment. Powerful countries can capture most of the gains from trade as they have more bargaining power and can impose their own rules and regulations on weaker countries. This leads to a concentration of economic power in the hands of a few countries and can result in economic inequality between countries.

Free trade can also lead to a "race to the bottom" in social and environmental regulations. As countries compete to attract foreign investment and increase exports, they may lower their social and environmental standards to reduce costs. This can lead to exploitation of workers, pollution, and damage to the environment.Overall, while free trade can provide economic benefits, it is important to ensure that it is conducted in a way that is fair, equitable, and sustainable for all countries involved.

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efficiency in a market occurs when the production of the good is such that

Answers

Efficiency in a market occurs when the production of a good is such that it maximizes overall welfare by allocating resources optimally and achieving the highest possible level of total surplus.

Efficiency in a market refers to the state where resources are allocated in a way that maximizes overall welfare. It occurs when the production of a good is at a level that achieves the highest possible level of total surplus. Total surplus represents the combined value of consumer surplus and producer surplus in the market.

To achieve efficiency, several conditions must be met.

First, resources need to be allocated optimally, meaning they are allocated in a way that maximizes their value and utility. This entails producing the right quantity of goods or services that matches the preferences and demands of consumers.

Secondly, the production process should utilize resources efficiently, minimizing waste and maximizing output. This involves using the right combination of inputs and production techniques to achieve the desired level of output at the lowest possible cost.

When efficiency is achieved in a market, it signifies that the market is operating at its full potential, resulting in an optimal allocation of resources and maximizing overall welfare. It implies that there is no way to make one party better off without making another party worse off, given the available resources and technology.

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A company decided to replace an old machine with a new machine. Which of the following is considered a releyant cost?
a the book value of the old equipment
b depreciation expense on the old equipenent
c the loss on the disposal of the old equipment
d the current disposal price of the old equipment

Answers

The relevant cost in the decision to replace an old machine with a new machine is the current disposal price of the old equipment. This cost is considered relevant because it directly affects the cash flow and the overall financial impact of the decision.

The current disposal price of the old equipment represents the amount the company can receive by selling or disposing of the old machine in the market. It is relevant because it represents the cash inflow that the company can generate from the disposal of old equipment. By considering this cost, the company can assess the net cost or benefit of replacing the old machine with the new one.

On the other hand, the book value of the old equipment, depreciation expense, and the loss on disposal are not considered relevant costs in this decision. The book value represents the historical cost of the equipment and is not indicative of its current market value.

Depreciation expense is a non-cash expense and does not affect the cash flow. The loss on disposal is an accounting concept and does not directly impact the financial implications of the decision. Therefore, the current disposal price of the old equipment is the relevant cost to consider in this scenario.

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Use the AS-AD model where the central bank has an interest rate rule with a price target, PT
it=in+α(Pt−PT)
Assume that before any changes, the economy was in medium run equilibrium.
Explain why the AS curve slopes upward in price-output space and why the AD curve slopes downwards.

Answers

The short-run positive relationship between output (Y) and price level (P) rises the AS curve in the price-output space, indicating higher production costs at higher prices. Wealth and interest rate effects on consumption and investment lower the AD curve.

The AS-AD model is a key macroeconomic model. This model explains price-output relationships in the economy. The model assumes the economy has two markets—goods and finance. Financial markets trade financial assets, whereas goods markets trade goods and services. Due to sticky wages, this model's AS curve rises in price-output space. Sticky wages indicate delayed price adjustments. When prices rise, firms' production costs rise and output decreases. Price rises. Wealth, interest rate, and exchange rate effects make the AD curve slope downward in price-output space. As the price level rises, households' real wealth declines, lowering consumption spending. As the price level rises, money demand rises, causing interest rates to rise and investment spending to fall. The exchange rate effect reduces net exports by decreasing export demand as the price level rises. The AS-AD model helps explain price-output relationships in the economy.

The AS curve slopes upward in price-output space because of sticky wages, while the AD curve slopes downward in price-output space because of the wealth effect, interest rate effect, and exchange rate effect.

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Billy Ltd acquired the identifiable assets, liabilities and
contingent liabilities of Bryan Ltd for $536,000. The items
acquired, stated at fair value, are: plant $288,000; inventory
$160,000; account

Answers

The amount of goodwill recognized by Billy Ltd is $88,000.

Billy Ltd acquired the identifiable assets, liabilities, and contingent liabilities of Bryan Ltd for a total consideration of $536,000. The acquired assets include plant with a fair value of $288,000 and inventory with a fair value of $160,000.

To determine the amount of goodwill or gain on bargain purchase, we need to compare the total consideration with the fair value of the identifiable net assets acquired.

Identifiable net assets acquired = Fair value of plant + Fair value of inventory

                                                    = $288,000 + $160,000

                                                    = $448,000

Next, we compare the total consideration with the identifiable net assets acquired:

Total consideration = $536,000

Since the total consideration exceeds the identifiable net assets acquired, there is an excess payment made by Billy Ltd. This excess payment is known as goodwill.

Goodwill = Total consideration - Identifiable net assets acquired

                = $536,000 - $448,000

                = $88,000

Therefore, the amount of goodwill recognized by Billy Ltd is $88,000.

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If you invest $100 in a stock, borrowing 70 percent of the $100 at 30 percent interest, and the stock price rises by 30 percent, what is the return on your investment? Instructions: Enter your response as a whole number ….. percent

Answers

The return on your investment would be 9% in this scenario.

To calculate the return on investment in this scenario, we need to consider both the gain from the stock price increase and the cost of borrowing.

Investment amount: $100

Borrowed amount: 70% of $100 = $70

Interest rate on borrowing: 30%

The stock price rises by 30%, which means it increases by 30% of $100, resulting in a gain of $30.

However, since $70 was borrowed at a 30% interest rate, the interest cost would be 30% of $70, which is $21.

Therefore, the net gain from the investment would be the stock gain of $30 minus the interest cost of $21, resulting in a net gain of $9.

The return on investment is calculated by dividing the net gain ($9) by the initial investment ($100) and multiplying by 100 to express it as a percentage.

Return on investment = ($9 / $100) * 100 = 9%.

Thus, the return on your investment would be 9% in this scenario.

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If customer orders can be backordered:

a. CSL will be lower
b. Fill rate will be lower
c. Sales will be lost
d. CSL will be higher

Answers

If customer orders can be backordered, the fill rate will be lower. So, the correct option is B.

This is because backordering a customer's order implies that the order is not immediately available to the customer. Thus, a backorder is an order for a product or service that cannot be immediately filled or delivered by the seller, and, as a result, will be filled later. It affects the customer satisfaction level when the ordered product or service cannot be delivered on time.

Why will the fill rate be lower if customer orders can be backordered?

A fill rate is the percentage of a customer's order that can be filled immediately from the seller's inventory when the customer places an order. Therefore, a backorder indicates that a part or all of the ordered product is not currently available to the customer. Thus, the correct option is b. Fill rate will be lower.

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In 750-1000 words, do the following 1. Explain the participants in the situation. (Power involved, interest, requirement) 2. Explain the difference between influence and negotiation among parties.

Answers

In a given situation, understanding the participants involved is crucial. Participants can be identified based on their power, interests, and requirements.

1. Participants in the Situation:

In any given situation, there are typically multiple participants with various levels of power, interests, and requirements. Power can be seen as the ability to influence or control the decisions and outcomes of the situation.

Participants with higher power may have more leverage and authority to shape the course of events. Interests represent the motivations, desires, and needs of each participant.

These can range from financial gains and personal achievements to strategic goals or emotional satisfaction. Requirements, on the other hand, refer to the specific conditions or objectives that participants seek to fulfill.

These can include legal obligations, contractual agreements, resource allocations, or organizational goals.

Identifying the participants and understanding their power dynamics, interests, and requirements is essential in comprehending the dynamics of the situation and the potential conflicts or alignments that may arise.

2. Influence and Negotiation among Parties:

Influence and negotiation are two distinct but interconnected concepts in the realm of interpersonal relationships and decision-making processes.

Influence refers to the ability to shape or alter the opinions, behaviors, or actions of others.

It can be exerted through various means, such as knowledge, expertise, social status, charisma, or control over resources. Influencing others involves convincing or persuading them to adopt a particular viewpoint, support a specific course of action, or change their behaviors.

Influence can be exerted in both formal and informal settings and is often driven by the desire to achieve specific outcomes or to gain a competitive advantage.

Negotiation, on the other hand, is a process of communication and compromise aimed at reaching a mutually acceptable agreement among parties with conflicting interests or differing viewpoints.

It involves active participation, dialogue, and the exploration of alternatives to find common ground and resolve disputes or conflicts. Negotiation requires effective communication, problem-solving skills, and a willingness to engage in give-and-take discussions.

It can occur in various contexts, such as business transactions, diplomatic negotiations, labor disputes, or interpersonal conflicts.

While influence focuses on the ability to shape others' perspectives or decisions, negotiation centers on finding mutually agreeable solutions by accommodating different interests and viewpoints.

Influence can be used as a strategy within the negotiation process to persuade or convince others of a particular position. Successful negotiation often relies on understanding the power dynamics and interests of the participants involved, as well as employing effective influence tactics to build consensus and achieve desired outcomes.

In summary, understanding the participants involved in a situation, including their power, interests, and requirements, is crucial for comprehending the dynamics and potential outcomes.

Influence and negotiation are two distinct approaches, with influence focusing on shaping others' opinions or actions and negotiation centered on reaching mutually acceptable agreements through dialogue and compromise.

Both influence and negotiation play significant roles in navigating complex interpersonal relationships and decision-making processes.

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Exchange Rates a. Suppose one curo costs $1.20 on January 1 and on March 1 , one euro costs $1.15. i. Has the Dollar appreciated or depreciated against the Euro over this time period? ii. If a U.S. firm was purchasing goods from a Spanish firm and the total value of goods is 500,000 euros, how much would the U.S. firm have to spend in S if these goods were paid for on January 1 ? iii. How much would the U.S. firm have to spend in S if these goods were paid for on March 1 ?

Answers

i. The Dollar has appreciated against the Euro over this time period. This is because the exchange rate has decreased from $1.20 per Euro to $1.15 per Euro. A decrease in the exchange rate indicates that it takes fewer dollars to purchase one Euro, which means the Dollar has gained value relative to the Euro.

ii. If the goods were paid for on January 1, when the exchange rate was $1.20 per Euro, the U.S. firm would need to spend $1.20 * 500,000 euros = $600,000.

iii. If the goods were paid for on March 1, when the exchange rate was $1.15 per Euro, the U.S. firm would need to spend $1.15 * 500,000 euros = $575,000. The decrease in the exchange rate means that the U.S. firm would require a smaller amount of dollars to purchase the same amount of Euros, resulting in a lower total cost in dollars compared to January 1.

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a _____ is a choice made from available alternatives.

Answers

A "decision" is a choice made from available alternatives and explained below.

A decision is a choice made from available alternatives. When faced with multiple options or courses of action, individuals or groups make decisions by evaluating the available choices and selecting the one that is deemed most suitable or favorable based on various factors such as preferences, goals, values, and potential outcomes. Decision-making is a fundamental process in personal, professional, and organizational contexts.

A decision refers to the act or process of choosing a particular option or course of action among several alternatives. It involves evaluating different possibilities, weighing their potential outcomes and consequences, and ultimately selecting the option that is considered most suitable or favorable based on individual or collective judgment.

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the better business bureau seal on a website indicates quizlet

Answers

The Better Business Bureau (BBB) seal on a website indicates that the business has met certain standards and has been accredited by the BBB.

However, it is important to note that BBB accreditation does not necessarily guarantee the quality or reliability of a business. The BBB is a non-profit organization that aims to promote ethical business practices and provide information and ratings on businesses.

The BBB seal on a website signifies that the business has undergone a review process and has met the BBB's accreditation standards, which may include factors such as honesty in advertising, transparent business practices, responsiveness to customer complaints, and a commitment to resolving issues. The seal can instill a sense of trust and confidence in consumers who recognize the BBB as a reputable organization.

While the BBB accreditation and seal can be a positive indicator, it is still recommended for consumers to conduct their own research and due diligence when engaging with a business. Reading customer reviews, checking other reliable sources, and considering other factors such as the company's reputation, track record, and customer service can provide a more comprehensive assessment of a business's credibility and reliability.

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For simplicity, assume that Engineered Industries will not pay dividends in 2018 and did not sell any capital equipment. It did purchase $965,000 in capital equipment. Total fixed assets in dollars____at the end of 2018.

Answers

The total fixed assets at the end of 2018 for Engineered Industries is $965,000.

Fixed assets represent long-term tangible assets that are not easily converted into cash, such as buildings, equipment, and machinery. In this case, Engineered Industries purchased $965,000 in capital equipment in 2018. Since there were no dividends paid and no capital equipment sold during the year, we can assume that the only change to the fixed assets is the purchase of the capital equipment.

Therefore, the total fixed assets at the end of 2018 will be equal to the value of the capital equipment purchased, which is $965,000. This represents the net book value of the capital equipment owned by the company at the end of the year. Fixed assets are typically reported on the balance sheet and provide an indication of the company's investment in long-term assets that are expected to generate future benefits.

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1. Perpectual bonds and preference shares are very similar in nature, but yet they have some differences. In this regards, Which of the following statement is not ture A. they both may be redeemed at the company's discretion

B. the are both for a definte period of time

C. te perpetual bonds have higher priority on liquidation

D. they both pay interest / dividend on a regular basise

e) interest on perpetual bonds is tax deductible but dividend on preference shares are not tax deductible.

Answers

Perpetual bonds and preference shares are very similar in nature, but yet they have some differences. The statement that is not true is option B.

They are both for a definite period of time.

Perpetual Bonds:

A perpetual bond is a bond without a maturity date. The issuer pays coupons to the bondholders for the life of the bond, and the principal amount is repaid at the discretion of the issuer. It's a form of debt that has no maturity date or a very long one, meaning that the borrower isn't required to pay it back for a long time.

Preference Shares

preference shares are a type of equity security that pay dividends to shareholders on a regular basis. They are regarded as a hybrid security because they have qualities of both equity and debt. They're referred to as hybrid securities since they have characteristics of both equity and debt. The dividend is usually paid at a fixed rate, and it is frequently paid before the dividend on common shares.

Similarities between Perpetual Bonds and Preference Shares:

Both may be redeemed at the company's discretion, and they both pay interest/dividend on a regular basis.

difference between Perpetual Bonds and Preference Shares

Preference shares have a higher priority on liquidation than perpetual bonds. Also, interest on perpetual bonds is tax-deductible, but dividends on preference shares are not tax-deductible.

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according to coordinated management of meaning, dialogic communication:

A) means that you encourage stories lived and stories told but carefully avoid stories untold, stories unknown, and stories unheard.
B) is defined as a conversation in which parties remain in the tension between holding their own perspective while being profoundly open to the other.
C) means that you approximate the process of communication favored by Socrates in the dialogues of Plato.
D) means that you control persons-in-communication, thereby establishing both coordination and coherence.

Answers

According to coordinated management of meaning, dialogic communication is defined as a conversation in which parties remain in the tension between holding their own perspective while being profoundly open to the other. The correct option is B).

The Coordinated Management of Meaning (CMM) is a communications theory that was developed by Barnett Pearce and Vernon Cronen. The theory examines the social construction of communication and the ways in which it can be coordinated by those engaged in it. It highlights how people create shared meaning and manage their interactions through stories and narratives.

Dialogic communication refers to a conversation in which parties remain in the tension between holding their own perspective while being profoundly open to the other. The concept is based on the idea that communication is a collaborative process that involves the co-creation of meaning by the parties involved.

Dialogic communication helps people understand the world from a different perspective, while still being able to express their own views and values.

Therefore, b is correct.

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Final answer:

Dialogic communication in the Coordinated Management of Meaning is a conversation where everyone holds their personal perspective but is also deeply open to others. It creates a dynamic communication system wherein shared realities are built.

Explanation:

According to the Coordinated Management of Meaning, dialogic communication refers to option B: it is defined as a conversation in which parties remain in the tension between holding their own perspective while being profoundly open to the other. In this theory, every person is encouraged to maintain their personal viewpoint but must also be deeply receptive to understanding the perspectives of others. This concept fosters a dynamic communication where each party learns, understands, and respects the others' mindset. It encourages a conversation that is built on mutual understanding and a shared meaning among the communicators. Hence, dialogic communication within this context supports the process of crafting shared realities.

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Generous compensation packages paid to firms top management in the event of a takeover are referred to as:
a. white knights
b. golden parachute
c. poison pill
d. standstill agreement

Answers

The correct option is b. Golden parachute. A golden parachute is a term used to describe a generous compensation package paid to a company's top executives in the event of a takeover or merger.

A golden parachute is a term used to describe a generous compensation package paid to a company's top executives in the event of a takeover or merger. The package includes large cash payments, stock options, bonuses, and other benefits that the executives are entitled to receive in the event they are terminated or have their positions eliminated as a result of the takeover or merger. Golden parachute agreements are often put in place to ensure that key executives remain committed to the company and continue working until the deal is complete, as well as to retain top talent in the event of a hostile takeover bid by another company.

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"A call option gives the holder the right to ____ an asset at a
specific price, while a put option gives the holder the right to
____ an asset at a specific price.

Answers

A call option gives the holder the right to buy an asset at a specific price, while a put option gives the holder the right to sell an asset at a specific price.

These options provide investors with flexibility in managing their investments and profiting from price movements in financial markets. A call option is a financial contract that gives the holder the right, but not the obligation, to purchase an underlying asset, such as stocks, bonds, or commodities, at a predetermined price, known as the strike price, within a specific period of time. The holder of a call option believes that the price of the underlying asset will increase in the future. By purchasing a call option, the holder can profit from the price appreciation by buying the asset at the strike price and then selling it at a higher market price.

On the other hand, a put option grants the holder the right, but not the obligation, to sell an underlying asset at the strike price within a specific time frame. The holder of a put option expects the price of the underlying asset to decline. By purchasing a put option, the holder can benefit from the price decrease by selling the asset at the strike price, which is higher than the market price.

Both call and put options provide investors with a way to hedge against potential losses or speculate on the price movements of underlying assets. These options offer flexibility and allow investors to participate in various trading strategies, such as bullish or bearish positions. However, it's important to note that options trading involves risks, and investors should carefully consider their investment objectives and risk tolerance before engaging in options transactions.

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If an insurance consultant secures a contract for services from an insured, the consultant must retain a copy of the contract for a MinMum of: A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years

Answers

When an insurance consultant obtains a service contract from an insured party, it is necessary for the consultant to keep a duplicate of the agreement on file for at least three years. The correct answer is option C

What is an Insurance Contract?

An insurance contract is a binding arrangement between two entities that holds legal validity. The agreement includes the insurer's pledge to compensate the insured party for losses incurred in exchange for premiums paid by the insured party.

This legal agreement includes the terms and conditions of the insurance coverage provided by the insurer, as well as the responsibilities and duties of both the insurer and the insured party.Insurance policies are classified as unilateral contracts, as only the insurer is bound to its terms and conditions.

A consultant is an individual who offers specialized guidance or expertise in a specific area or industry.The insurance consultant must keep a copy of the contract for a minimum of three years in the situation described in the question. The length of time the consultant must maintain the contract is determined by law, so it is important to adhere to the regulations.

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what is the first step in the procurement process?

Answers

The first step in the procurement process is identifying the  need.

The procurement process begins by identifying the need for goods or services within an organization. This involves understanding the requirements and specifications of the desired product or service. It may include analyzing the current inventory, assessing demand, and considering factors such as quality, quantity, and budget. By clearly identifying the need, organizations can establish a solid foundation for the subsequent steps in the procurement process, such as vendor selection, negotiation, and contract management.

Identifying the need serves as the basis for the entire procurement process. It enables organizations to align their procurement activities with their operational and strategic goals. By clearly defining the need, organizations can effectively communicate their requirements to potential suppliers, streamline the sourcing process, and make informed decisions throughout the procurement cycle. This step also helps in accurately estimating the budget, timeline, and resources required for the procurement process. Ultimately, a well-defined need sets the stage for successful procurement outcomes by providing a clear direction and purpose for subsequent activities.

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What is the United States Equal Employment Opportunity
Commission? summarize its history.

Answers

The United States Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is a federal agency responsible for enforcing laws that prohibit workplace discrimination based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, and age. It was established to promote equal employment opportunities and protect employees' rights in the United States.

The EEOC was created through the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which aimed to address and eradicate discriminatory practices in the workplace. The commission officially began operating on July 2, 1965. Its formation was a significant milestone in the civil rights movement, as it centralized the enforcement of equal employment opportunity laws and provided individuals with a platform to file discrimination complaints.Throughout its history, the EEOC has played a crucial role in investigating and litigating cases of workplace discrimination. It has the authority to enforce federal laws related to equal employment opportunity and initiate legal actions against employers who engage in discriminatory practices.

Over the years, the EEOC has expanded its scope to include additional protected classes and areas of discrimination. It has worked to promote diversity and inclusion in the workplace, raise awareness about employees' rights, and provide guidance to employers on preventing discrimination.

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A manager choosing a marketing strategy for a new product indicates that she would be indifferent between the following: achieving a 6% market share for certain within three years or adopting a risky strategy, which would yield either the best possible market share of 11% within three years with a probability of 0.7 and the worst possible market share of 1% with a probability of 0.3. Assuming that utilities are measured on a 0 -to-1 scale, her utility for a 6% market share is:
a. Impossible to determine based on the information given
b. 0.3
c. 0.5
d. 0.7

Answers

To determine the utility for a 6% market share, we need to consider the information given in the scenario. The manager is indifferent between achieving a 6% market share with certainty and adopting a risky strategy with potential outcomes of 11% (with a probability of 0.7) or 1% (with a probability of 0.3).

Since the manager is indifferent between these options, we can assume that the utility for a 6% market share is equal to the expected utility of the risky strategy. The expected utility can be calculated by multiplying each possible market share outcome by its corresponding probability and summing them.

Expected utility = (0.7 * 11%) + (0.3 * 1%) = 7.7% + 0.3% = 8%

However, the utility scale mentioned in the question ranges from 0 to 1. Since a 6% market share falls below the best possible outcome of 11%, the utility for a 6% market share would be less than 1 but greater than 0. Therefore, the closest answer choice would be:

d. 0.7

This indicates that the manager's utility for a 6% market share is 0.7 on the 0-to-1 scale.

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Two travelers own an identical suitcase that contains identical antiques. The airline is liable for a maximum of $100 per suitcase. To determine how much to reimburse each traveler, the airline puts them in different rooms (so that they cannot communicate), and ask them to write down an amount (an integer number) between $2 and $100. If both write down the same number, the airline will reimburse both travelers that amount. However, if the two amounts are different, both travelers will be paid the lowest of the two numbers along with a bonus/malus: $2 extra will be paid to the traveler who wrote down the lower value and a $2 deduction will be taken from the person who wrote down the higher amount. What are the travelers’ best response functions? What are the Nash equilbria of the game? Are they Pareto efficient? Explain the intuition why

Answers

If both travelers choose the same amount (x = y), they will both receive that amount. This is a Nash equilibrium because neither traveler has the incentive to deviate from their chosen amount since they would not gain anything by doing so.

To determine the best response functions and Nash equilibria of the game, let's analyze the possible strategies and outcomes.

Let's denote the amount written by Traveler 1 as "x" and the amount written by Traveler 2 as "y."

If both travelers choose the same amount (x = y), they will both be reimbursed that amount.

If the amounts chosen are different (x ≠ y), the lower amount will be paid to both travelers along with a bonus/malus of $2.

To find the best response functions, we need to analyze what each traveler would choose given the choice of the other.

Traveler 1's best response function:

If Traveler 2 chooses x, Traveler 1 would also choose x to receive that amount.

If Traveler 2 chooses y > x, Traveler 1 would choose x - $2 to minimize the deduction and receive x - $2.

Similarly, Traveler 2's best response function:

If Traveler 1 chooses y, Traveler 2 would also choose y to receive that amount.

If Traveler 1 chooses x > y, Traveler 2 would choose y - $2 to minimize the deduction and receive y - $2.

Now let's consider the possible outcomes:

If both travelers choose the same amount (x = y), they will both receive that amount. This is a Nash equilibrium because neither traveler has an incentive to deviate from their chosen amount since they would not gain anything by doing so. However, this outcome is not Pareto efficient because both travelers could have chosen a higher amount, resulting in a better outcome for both.

If the amounts chosen are different (x ≠ y), both travelers will receive the lower amount along with the bonus/malus. This is also a Nash equilibrium because neither traveler can unilaterally change their amount to increase their payoff. It is Pareto efficient because any deviation from this outcome would result in a lower payoff for at least one of the travelers.

The intuition behind this is that travelers have an incentive to choose the lowest possible amount to avoid the malus deduction. However, this leads to a suboptimal outcome in terms of total reimbursement since both travelers could have chosen a higher amount if they had coordinated.

In summary, the best response functions indicate that each traveler will choose the lowest possible amount to avoid deductions. The Nash equilibrium occurs when both travelers choose the same amount or when they choose different amounts with the same minimum value. However, this equilibrium is not Pareto efficient as higher amounts could have been chosen to benefit both travelers.

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Which is the most accurate statement about projected drought in Australia? Extreme droughts are expected to increase Moderate droughts are expected to increase Severe and moderate droughts are project

Answers

The most accurate statement about projected drought in Australia is:

Severe and moderate droughts are projected to increase.

Australia is a continent known for its variability in climate, and droughts are a recurring challenge in many parts of the country. Climate change projections and scientific studies indicate that Australia is likely to experience an increase in severe and moderate droughts in the future. This is due to factors such as rising temperatures, changes in rainfall patterns, and increased evaporation rates, which can contribute to drier conditions and water scarcity. It is important to note that while extreme droughts can occur, the statement does not specifically mention them and focuses on the increase in severe and moderate droughts, which is a commonly reported trend in climate change research related to Australia.

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Consider the following production function: where is output, is labor input, and is a fixed amount of labor that is required before the first unit of output can be produced (like a research cost). We assume that if . Each unit of labor costs the wage to hire.

(a) How much does it cost to produce any arbitrary amount of output, ? That is, find the cost function that tells the minimum cost required to produce units of output.
(b) Show that the marginal cost is constant (after the first unit is produced), and that the average cost is declining. Does the production function above feature increasing return to scale (IRS), decreasing return to scale (DRS), or constant return to scale (CRS)?
(c) Show that if the firm charges a price equal to marginal cost, its profits, defined as , will be negative regardless of the level of .
(d) Comparing the Solow model and the AK model (the latter is discussed in tutorial), when TFP is fixed, the Solow model predicts that the economy does not grow in the long run. What is the key assumption that leads to this result? What is the prediction of the AK model regarding the long-run economic growth and what is the key assumption that lead to this result?

Answers

(a) The cost function to produce units of output, , can be calculated as follows:

If , the cost is zero because no labor input is required to produce zero output.

If , the cost is because only the fixed cost, , is incurred.

If , the cost is because one unit of labor is required to produce the first unit of output, and each unit of labor costs the wage, .

Therefore, the cost function, , can be defined as:

(b) To show that the marginal cost is constant (after the first unit is produced), we differentiate the cost function with respect to the output, :

The marginal cost is constant and equal to .

To show that the average cost is declining, we divide the cost function by the output:

The average cost is , which is declining as increases.

Based on the production function, we can observe that it features constant returns to scale (CRS). This is because doubling the labor input, , will exactly double the output, , and the cost of production will also double.

(c) If the firm charges a price equal to the marginal cost, the profits can be calculated as:

Substituting the expression for the marginal cost, we get:

Regardless of the level of output, the profits will be negative because the price is equal to the marginal cost. The fixed cost, , and the labor cost, , will always exceed the revenue generated from selling the output, resulting in negative profits.

(d) In the Solow model, the key assumption that leads to the prediction of no long-run economic growth is that the total factor productivity (TFP) is fixed. TFP represents technological progress or improvements in efficiency. If TFP is fixed, the model predicts that in the long run, the economy will reach a steady state where output and capital per worker remain constant, resulting in no further growth.

In the AK model, the prediction regarding long-run economic growth is different. The AK model assumes that there are increasing returns to scale, meaning that the output can grow without bound as long as there is sufficient investment in capital. The key assumption is that the production function exhibits constant returns to capital (CRK), which implies that doubling the amount of capital will exactly double the output. With this assumption, the AK model predicts that the economy can achieve sustained economic growth in the long run by increasing the investment in capital.

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What sustainable logistics practices does Kroger supply chain
employ?

Answers

Kroger, one of the largest supermarket chains in the United States, has implemented several sustainable logistics practices in its supply chain.

Firstly, Kroger focuses on optimizing transportation efficiency to reduce fuel consumption and emissions. This includes route optimization, load consolidation, and the use of alternative fuels and vehicles, such as electric and hybrid trucks.

Additionally, Kroger prioritizes sustainable packaging practices. They aim to minimize packaging waste, increase the use of recycled materials, and encourage suppliers to adopt eco-friendly packaging solutions.

Kroger also emphasizes the reduction of food waste throughout its supply chain. They employ data analytics and forecasting techniques to better manage inventory, improve demand planning, and minimize spoilage.

Furthermore, Kroger has implemented energy-efficient practices in its distribution centers, such as using LED lighting and employing advanced energy management systems to monitor and reduce energy consumption.

Lastly, Kroger engages in partnerships and collaborations with suppliers, industry organizations, and sustainability experts to drive innovation and share best practices in sustainable logistics.

By employing these practices, Kroger aims to minimize its environmental footprint, promote resource conservation, and contribute to a more sustainable future.

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Which of the following statements about cookies is not true? Select one: O a. Cookies can be combined with other website data to develop detailed profiles of customers. O b. Cookies are used to support the user experience on websites. O c. Cookies cannot be easily detected or deleted. O d. Cookies are installed only at the user's request. O e. Cookies are stored on the user's computer.

Answers

The statement "d. Cookies are installed only at the user's request" is not true.

The statement "d. Cookies are installed only at the user's request" is incorrect. Cookies are small text files that are created and stored on the user's computer when they visit a website. They are not installed at the user's explicit request but rather automatically generated by the website's server and sent to the user's browser. Cookies serve various purposes, including enhancing the user experience and enabling personalized content.

Regarding the other statements:

a. Cookies can be combined with other website data to develop detailed profiles of customers: This statement is true. Cookies can track user behavior, preferences, and browsing history, which can be combined with other website data to create detailed profiles of customers.

b. Cookies are used to support the user experience on websites: This statement is true. Cookies play a crucial role in supporting various aspects of the user experience, such as remembering login information, storing shopping cart items, and providing personalized content.

c. Cookies cannot be easily detected or deleted: This statement is false. Users can easily detect and delete cookies from their browsers. Most web browsers provide options to view and manage cookies, allowing users to delete specific cookies or clear all cookies.

e. Cookies are stored on the user's computer: This statement is true. Cookies are stored as text files on the user's computer or device when they visit a website. These files contain information that is sent back to the website's server on subsequent visits.

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Final answer:

Cookies are small text files that websites use to track and store information on a user's computer. While they support the user experience on websites and can be combined with other data to develop customer profiles, they are not installed only at the user's request. The correct option id D.

Explanation:

Which of the following statements about cookies is not true? The correct answer is d. Cookies are installed only at the user's request.

Cookies are small text files that websites place on a user's computer to track and store information. They are used to support the user experience on websites, such as remembering user preferences or keeping a user logged in. Cookies can be combined with other website data to develop detailed profiles of customers and are stored on the user's computer. However, cookies are not installed only at the user's request, as they are automatically created when a user visits a website.

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