The condition known as Emphysema is the progressive loss of lung function that is commonly attributed to long-term smoking.
Along with asthma and chronic bronchitis, emphysema belongs to a group of lung diseases known as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This chronic lung disease mainly affects the air sacs or alveoli in the lungs.
Emphysema is marked by a reduction in the total number of alveoli, extension of the remaining alveoli along with the progressive destruction of the walls of these remaining alveoli.
Symptoms usually include shortness of breath, long-term cough, fatigue, sleep and heart-related problems, weight loss, and depression.
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Saying a person has _____disorders means the individual has two or more diagnoses.
If a person has a disorder where the individual has two or more diagnoses, it is called comorbid disorder.
What is Comorbid disorder?Comorbidity is the occurrence of two or more illnesses or conditions in the same person. They could take place simultaneously or one after the other. Comorbidity also denotes interactions between the diseases that could make both of them worsen. Conditions relating to comorbid disorder:Physical conditions include diabetes, cardiovascular disease, cancer, infectious infections, and dementia are examples of comorbid conditions. Eating disorders, anxiety disorders, and substance misuse are among the mental health issues that frequently coexist.Prevalence of Comorbid disorder:People frequently receive diagnoses for two diseases or conditions at once. Comorbidity in mental illness can occur when a person receives a medical diagnosis followed by a mental disorder diagnosis (or vice versa), or when a mental disorder diagnosis is made followed by the diagnosis of another mental disorder.Treatment:A major issue for medical personnel is when medical and mental illnesses coexist. For instance, a person who has been diagnosed with both diabetes and depression would receive therapy for both disorders, but coordination between the multiple healthcare providers providing treatment would be required to account for drug and symptom overlap.To learn more about Comorbid disorder visit:
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How do culture and personal values influence the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices?
Complementary therapies help us to feel better. Cope with having cancer and treatment. They can help them to feel better and also improve quality of life.
The complementary and traditional cultural medicines are used by people and want to have more control over health. They turn to complementary alternatives medicine to relive common symptoms, Improve their quality.
Users of the complimentary alternative therapy over the past 12 months in 2016 from 35-44 years age group means 61% . The complementary medicines used diminished with age and generally rose with both income and education. We also helps headaches , joint pain and high blood pressure.
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Which branch of medicine diagnoses, treats, and manages musculoskeletal disorders?
Some viruses can undergo lysis or lysogeny within the same host. Under what conditions might the virus favor lysis instead of lysogeny?.
In a process known as induction, prophage may spontaneously separate themselves from the host genome and enter the lytic cycle if a bacterium containing them is subjected to stressors like UV light, low nutritional circumstances, or drugs like mitomycin C.
What is Lysogenic cycle ?A virus can use a host cell to copy its DNA through the lysogenic cycle. The lysogenic cycle and the lytic cycle are the two types of DNA replication that viruses often engage in. DNA is only copied during the lysogenic cycle; it is not translated into proteins.
What is Lytic cycle ?The virus binds to the host cell and injects its DNA during the lytic cycle. The viral DNA starts to replicate and create proteins using the host's biological metabolism. the assembly of fully developed viruses.
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The term __________ describes the movement of sperm and accessory gland secretions into the urethra.
The term Emission describes the movement of sperm and accessory gland secretions into the urethra.
What is Emission?
A discharge; referring usually to a discharge of the male internal genital organs into the internal urethra; the contents of the organs, including sperm cells, pro static fluid, and seminal vesicle fluid, mix in the internal urethra with mucus from the bulbourethral glands to form semen.
Movement of sperm:
When ejaculation occurs, sperm is forcefully expelled from the tail of the epididymis into the deferent duct. Sperm then travels through the deferent duct through up the spermatic cord into the pelvic cavity, over the ureter to the prostate behind the bladder.
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Mrs. gilmer has leukemia and requires a bone marrow transplant. Part of the treatment was the harvesting of her bone marrow so she could receive it later as a/an _____ bone marrow transplant.
The procedure of harvesting of her bone marrow so she could receive it later is known as autologous bone marrow transplant.
What is leukemia?Leukemia is a form of cancer in which the body makes abnormal blood cells.
Leukemia is treated by bone marrow transplant. This is to ensure that new stem cells are produced which are normal and will help restore the body to producing normal healthy blood cells.
In bone marrow transfer, the bone marrow to be used on for the process may be from a donor or from the same patient.
The bone marrow transplant wherein the bone marrow of the patient is used is known as autologous bone marrow transplant.
Mrs Gilmer therefore, receives autologous bone marrow transplant.
In conclusion, leukemia is treated by bone marrow transfer from a donor or from the patient.
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Name two possible causes of metabolic acidosis diarrhea antacids aspirin constipation exercise vomiting alcohol diabetes?
Two possible causes of metabolic acidosis include diarrhea and diabetes.
Metabolic acidosis is a condition in which too much acid is produced in the body. However, it may also occur when the kidneys cannot remove sufficient amount of acid from the body. There are several types of metabolic acidosis:
Diabetic acidosis (also known as diabetic ketoacidosis or DKA) develops when substances called ketone bodies (acidic in nature) build up during uncontrolled diabetes (usually type 1 diabetes).Hyperchloremic acidosis is caused due to the loss of a large amount of sodium bicarbonate from the body, which usually results from severe diarrhea.Kidney diseases such as uremia, distal renal tubular acidosis or proximal renal tubular acidosis.Lactic acidosis which results from a buildup of lactic acid.Poisoning by aspirin, ethylene glycol (found in antifreeze), or methanol.Severe dehydration.To learn more about Metabolic acidosis here
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genevieves second client appears to have a skin type that consists of normal-sized follicles, is usually free of belmishes, and primarily requires maintenance and preventative care. what is this clients skin type
The clients skin type that consists of normal-sized follicles, is usually free of blemishes and primarily requires maintenance and preventative care is normal skin type.
What are the basic skin-types?
Normal skin type is not too dry and not too oily, normal skin has no or few imperfections, no severe sensitivity, barely visible pores and a radiant complexion.Combination skin type can have pores that look larger than normal because they’re more open, blackheads, shiny skin.Dry skin type has almost invisible pores, dull rough complexion, red patches, less elastic skin, more visible lines.Oily skin type has enlarged pores, dull or shiny, thick complexion, blackheads, pimples or other blemishes.Sensitive skin type show redness, itching, burning and dryness.To learn more about skin: https://brainly.com/question/20693358
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The type of arthritis that typically affects the hands and weight-bearing joints of the knees, ankles, and hips is.
The type of arthritis that typically affects the hands and weight-bearing joints of the knees, ankles, and hips is osteoarthritis.
What is osteoarthritis?Millions of people worldwide suffer from osteoarthritis, the most prevalent kind of arthritis. It happens as a result of deterioration of the protective cartilage that cushions the ends of the bones throughout time.
Despite the fact that osteoarthritis can harm any joint, it most frequently affects the hands, knees, hips, and spine.
While the damage to joints cannot be undone, osteoarthritis symptoms can typically be controlled. The progression of the disease may be slowed down and pain and joint function may be improved by staying active, maintaining a healthy weight, and obtaining specific therapies.
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Inflammation of the small intestine caused by eating or drinking substances contaminated with viral and bacterial pathogens true or false?.
It is True.
Inflammation of the small intestine caused by eating or drinking substances contaminated with viral or bacterial pathogens is called enteritis.
What is called inflammation?Inflammation is a necessary aspect of the healing process in your body. It happens when inflammatory cells migrate to the site of an injury or foreign substance, such as bacteria. Chronic inflammation may result if inflammatory cells remain for an extended period of time.
What causes inflammation of the small intestine?The inflammation of your small intestine is known as enteritis. It might also affect your stomach (gastroenteritis) or colon (enterocolitis). It is frequently the result of a viral, bacterial, or parasitic illness (food poisoning, stomach bug or the stomach flu). It can be caused by radiation, medications, or illness.
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Inflammation of the small intestine caused by eating or drinking substances contaminated with viral and bacterial pathogens.
Enteritis
Most frequently, consuming food or beverages that are contaminated with germs or viruses leads to enteritis. In the small intestine, the germs induce swelling and inflammation. Other potential causes of enteritis include: Autoimmune diseases including Crohn's disease.
What causes inflammation of small intestine ?The most important infections that potentially cause IBD include viruses including CMV, Epstein-Barr virus, and measles virus, as well as Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis, Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes, and Campylobacter concisus.
A complete blood count and a stool test may be the first steps in your evaluation as you look for indications of intestinal inflammation. You could also undergo one or more of the following diagnostic exams: examination of the big and small intestines using colonoscopy. to examine the digestive tract using endoscopic ultrasoundLearn more about Small intestine here:
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You are the director of health information services in a major medical center that maintains both a psychiatric and substance abuse units in addition to general medical and surgical units. Your facility, under the direction of the CIO, plans to join a computer network with 15 hospitals throughout the state, which will allow online access to records, regardless of which facility they were generated. None of the other 15 facilities offers psychiatric or substance abuse treatment, and you have been asked to provide HIM analysis as the subject matter expert.
Identify access and confidentiality issues that may be present with such a network in the light of the statutory, regulatory, and accrediting requirements governing patients treated in these units.
What specific organizational recommendation(s) would you make to the CIO to ensure she has considered specialized records in her support of the network for all departments, including the HIM department?
Discuss psychotherapy notes as defined by HIPAA and how they are treated differently.
The simplest case in which medical confidentiality can be breached is when there is patient consent. However, this does not allow professionals to publish information or medical records in absentia on social media — as this is also prohibited by the Code of Medical Ethics in its section on the subject.
What specific organizational recommendations would you make to the CIO to ensure he considers specialist records in your network support for all departments, including the HIM department?The recommendations are to keep these patients confidential, so that their information is only available to doctors, and not open to the public.
Discuss psychotherapy notes as defined by HIPAA and how they are treated differently.In general, patients or their legal representatives should be able to view and obtain copies of their medical records and request corrections if errors or mistakes are identified. For purposes of the US Privacy Act, a patient's "authorized personal representative" is a legal guardian able to make health care decisions, a representative in possession of a power of attorney for dealing with health-related matters, or a family member or friend authorized to act as a representative for decisions under US state law. Patients also have the right to allow third parties access to all or part of their medical records upon signed written authorization.
With this information, we can conclude that Ethical medical treatment always includes the need to keep patients' medical information confidential. However, the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act codified this responsibility for health workers.
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Women who develop gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing _____ later in life.
Women who develop gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing of high blood pressure, as well as preeclampsia later in life.
Gestational diabetes occurs when your body is unable to produce enough insulin during pregnancy. Insulin is a hormone produced by your pancreas that acts as a key to allow blood sugar into your cells for use as energy.Gestational diabetes increases your risk of high blood pressure and preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication that causes high blood pressure and other symptoms that can endanger both your life and your baby's life.Learn more about Gestational diabetes from here:https://brainly.com/question/19286748
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Which spinal plexus gives rise to the phrenic nerve, and what organ does this nerve supply?.
Why does phrenic nerve supply diaphragm?
The C3-C5 spinal nerves in the neck give rise to the phrenic nerve, a mixed motor and sensory nerve. The diaphragm, the main muscle of respiration, is exclusively controlled by the nerve, making it essential for breathing.What organ does this nerve supply?.
The jejunum receives both intrinsic and extrinsic nerve supply. The preganglionic parasympathetic and postganglionic sympathetic branches of the celiac plexus provide the autonomic extrinsic supply. These neurons go via branches of the major vessels from the mesentery into the jejunum.What are the 4 types of nerves?
It is conventional, however, to describe nerve types on the basis of their function: motor, sensory, autonomic or cranial.
Motor Nerves. Sensory Nerves.Autonomic Nerves. Cranial Nerves.Learn more about phrenic nerve
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Which two techniques forensic scientists for determining the elemental composition of materials?
Currently, the methods most frequently used in forensic science laboratories are scanning electron microscopy-x-ray spectroscopy (SEM-EDX), x-ray fluorescence spectroscopy (XRF) and inductively coupled plasma (ICP)-based methods with either mass spectrometry (MS) or optical emission spectroscopy (OES) as a detection.
Forensic technology technicians aid criminal investigations by way of accumulating and studying proof. Many technicians specialize in both crime scene research and laboratory evaluation.
Forensic technology is an important element of the criminal justice system. Forensic scientists take a look at and analyze evidence from crime scenes and someplace else to develop goal findings that could assist in the investigation and prosecution of perpetrators of crime or absolve an harmless character from suspicion.
Due to the boom in crime rate and criminals, the scope of Forensic technological know-how is extended exponentially. There are lots of job possibilities in the field of Forensic technology. The need for forensic scientists is huge all over the globe, in particular in India.
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Holly is needs lithium administered. She needs 10 mg per Kg. and she currently weighs 110 lbs. What should Holly’s dose be? The Lithium bottle says 400 mg/ml. How much is given to Holly?
Holly needs to take 500mg or 1,25 ml of lithium
What is dosage?Dosing is the act of dosing; is the action of measuring the amount of dose that will be administered, at a certain frequency for a period of time.
With that being said, Holly needs 10mg of lithium per kilogram. She weighs 110 lbs, which is 50 kg. Lithium concentration is 400 mg/ml. As she weighs 50 kg she will need to take 500mg of lithium in 1,25 ml .
[tex]10mg -- 1kg\\x mg -- 50kg\\x = 500 mg[/tex]
As the concentrarion is 400mg/ml:
[tex]400mg -- 1ml\\500mg -- x ml\\x = 1,25 ml[/tex]
In this case, is possible to see that Holly needs to take 500mg or 1,25 ml of lithium.
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The national cholesterol education program (ncep) recommends that an adult have a total cholesterol less than ______________.
Answer:
The national cholesterol education program (ncep) recommends that an adult have a total cholesterol less than 150 mg/dL
Name two possible causes of metabolic alkalosis diarrhea antacids aspirin constipation exercise vomiting alcohol diabetes?
There are two possible causes of metabolic alkalosis such as ,firstly loss of stomach acids which is most common cause of metabolic alkalosis ,secondly reduced volume of blood in the arteries.
Metabolic alkaloiss is developed by body when it loses too much acid or gains too much base then excess vomiting which causes electrolyte loss, adrenal disease ,loss of potassium or sodium in a short amount of time.
Concomitant NH4+ losses in the diarrhea fluid may also contribute to development of metabolic alkalosis when hyperchloremic acidosis caused by the loss of too much sodium bicarbonate from the body which can happen with severe diarrhea.
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All compounds that have been found to be mutagenic in the ames test are also carcinogenic. True or false?.
It is false. All compounds that have been found to be mutagenic in the Ames test are not always carcinogenic.
The Ames test is utilised as a screening technique up front. Not all substances that pass the Ames test are cancer-causing.
What is Ames test?Using bacteria, the Ames test is a common technique for determining if a certain chemical can result in DNA mutations in the test organism. It is a biological assay to evaluate the mutagenesis potential of chemical substances, to put it more technically.
What is Carcinogen?Any drug, radionuclide, or radiation that encourages carcinogenesis—the development of cancer—is a carcinogen. This might be as a result of the possibility of genomic damage or cellular metabolic processes being upset.
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The client taking antihypertensive medications is taught to notify the healthcare provider when which findings occur?
A client who's taking blood pressure or antihypertensive medications is taught to notify the healthcare provider when there is a weight gain of 5 pounds in two days.
Antihypertensive medications are blood pressure medications which can bring the blood pressure down. They are different types which are given by the healthcare provider by taking factors like age, sex, race etc. into consideration.
These medicines act in different ways. For example, some remove extra fluids from the blood whereas others block natural hormones which raise the blood pressure. The side effect of these medicines is that they lead to weight gain and if the client gains 5 pounds in over two days, it has to be reported to the healthcare provider.
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How do the limbs on a recurve crossbow differ from the limbs on a compound crossbow?.
Recurve crossbows need longer limbs and barrels than compound crossbows do to deliver a longer power stroke.
What is the difference between recurve crossbow and compound crossbow?
Recurve crossbow:
Recurve crossbows don't have cables or cams, hence their designs are less complicated than those of compound crossbows. It has bigger limbs and a bigger overall barrel to give the crossbow bolt the power it needs. The recurve crossbow is consequently heavier and bigger than the compound crossbow.
Recurve crossbows get their name from the way their limb tips curve away from the shooter to give the shot extra force. Recurve crossbows have a broader bore than compound crossbows and are a little quieter.
Compound crossbow:
Although the compound crossbow has a more intricate build, it is frequently more potent than the recurve crossbow. The limbs and barrel of the compound crossbow are smaller since the limbs do not provide the majority of its power. The additional cams and wires increase the overall weight despite the fact that it is more compact.
The compound crossbow is narrower overall, but when fired, it makes more noise than the recurve crossbow. The compound crossbow's reloading speed is also quicker due to its more compact size.
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In terms of the best, most long-lasting outcomes, the best time to perform bariatric surgery on a morbidly overweight teenager is at age:
In terms of the best, most long-lasting outcomes, the best time to perform bariatric surgery on a morbidly overweight teenager is at age 13 for girls and 15 for boys.
What is Bariatric Surgery?Bariatric surgery is performed when diet and exercise have failed or when you are having serious health problems as a result of your weight.
The ability to eat more is restricted by several procedures.
Other treatments work by making it harder for the body to absorb nutrients. Some techniques perform both.
Not everyone who is extremely overweight should have bariatric surgery. To be eligible for weight-loss surgery, you might need to fulfill specific medical requirements.
Even though there are numerous advantages to bariatric surgery, it is a substantial procedure with significant risks and negative effects.
To assist assure the long-term success of bariatric surgery, you must also permanently adjust your diet and engage in regular exercise.
Hence, the optimal age to conduct bariatric surgery on a morbidly obese teenager is at age 13 for girls and 15 for boys, according to research, in order to achieve the greatest, most durable results.
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What type of test benefits individuals who are unable to undergo routine exercise stress testing because of extreme deconditioning, orthopedic disabilities, or other health problems
Submaximal stress testing is the type of testing that benefits individuals who cannot undergo routine stress testing due to extreme deconditioning, orthopedic disabilities or other health issues.
What are submaximal exercise tests?Submaximal exercise tests indicate oxygen consumption, a measure of aerobic fitness, by recording your heart rate response during a submaximal bout of exercise. During a submaximal graded exercise test, your heart rate increases as your exercise intensity increases.
With this information, we can conclude that Submaximal exercise tests aim to determine the relationship between the heart rate response of an individual.
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Breaches of unsecured phi are put through a risk assessment test to determine if they must be reported, the assessment considers:_____.
Breaches of unsecured PHI are put through a risk assessment test to determine if they must be reported the assessment considers to determine the probability that PHI has been compromised.
Breach is low - risk , don't have to notify affected parties , but there is a greater than low risk. The acquisition or use or disclosure of PHI in a way that compromises the security or privacy of PHI,also risk of financial , reputation, or harm individual.
According to HIPAA's rule - it covered entities to notify parents when their unsecured protected health information is used or disclosed or it may be breached in a way that compromise the privacy and security of it.
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Both categories of migraine abortive drugs (ergot alkaloids and serotonin agonists) exert powerful vasoconstrictive effects and also have what potential
Both categories of migraine drugs (ergot alkaloids and serotonin agonists) exert powerful vasoconstrictor effects and also have the potential to cause nausea and vomiting.
What is Ergotamine?Ergotamine is a vasoconstrictor alkaloid used in migraine attacks, when treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs does not provide an effect. Ergotamine can cause nausea and vomiting due to direct effects on the Central Nervous System at the vomiting centers.
What is abortive drugs?The use of medication during pregnancy should always be done only with the guidance of an obstetrician, as most drugs have the potential to cause problems during pregnancy and even result in a miscarriage.
Medications such as thalidomide, atorvastatin or isotretinoin are completely contraindicated during pregnancy because they can cause damage or malformations to the fetus that can be born with severe deficiencies or cause miscarriage.
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Two teaspoons of sugar provide about ________ kcalories.
The number of calories in a tsp of sugar when dissolve in water will always have 16 calories. Two teaspoons of sugar provide about 32 calories.
What Are Calories?A calorie is a unit of used and stored energy which can be obtained from our diet or can be burned energy by doing exercise.
In food it is classified into groups as fats, alcohol, carbohydrates, and proteins.
1 gram of alcohol has 7 calories, 1 gram of carbohydrate contain 4 calories. Similarly, 1 gram of fat has 9 calories and 1 gram of protein contains 4 calories.
Hence, the answer is 32 calories.
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A new antibiotic is classified as a bactericidal agent. This means that the drug?
Antibiotics are divided into two which is based on their mechanism of action such as - Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria and bacteriostatic antibiotic inhibit their growth or reproduction. These kill bacteria by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
Antibiotics which destroy bacteria by targeting the cell wall / membrane of the bacteria. Lefamulin and combination of relebactam/ imipenem. The next generation of antibiotics could come from the dirt. All antibiotics that can bacteriostatic do kill bacteria in vitriol.
Antibiotics are common agents used in modern healthcare. Discovery of drug in lab then analyzing that efficacy and safety after that submitting as investigation drug and clinical drug.
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If Trey has a high score in neuroticism and a low score in extroversion on the Big 5 personality test, he is likely to be
a. quiet and helpful
b. outgoing and critical.
c. nervous and secure.
d. anxious and quiet.
If Trey has a high score in neuroticism and a low score in extroversion on the Big 5 personality test, he is likely to be anxious and quiet. So, the correct option is (D).
What is personality?
Personality word is derived from the Greek word Persona , which means theatrical mask worn by the performer to hide their identity.
Personality is the combination of qualities or characteristics which make one person different from another. It can be unique pattern of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that distinguish a person from others.
Examples of personality can be found in how we describe other people's traits. For instance, "She is loyal and generous" or "they are caring and protective for their friends".
There are several fundamental characteristics of personality . They are:
1. Consistency
2. Both psychological and physiological
3. Affects behaviors and actions
4. Multiple expressions
Thus, if Trey has a high score in neuroticism and a low score in extroversion on the Big 5 personality test, he is likely to be anxious and quiet. So, the correct option is (D).
If Trey has a high score in neuroticism and a low score in extroversion on the Big 5 personality test, he is likely to be anxious and quiet. So, the correct option is (D).
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The correct compressions-to-ventilations ratio during a 1-person rescue on a child.
The correct compressions-to-ventilations ratio during a 1-person rescue on a child is 30/2.
What is the compressions-to-ventilations ratio during a 1-person rescue of a child?A distinct established criterion for CPR ratios is necessary for people of different ages. For instance, a baby differs from a child, a child from the average adult, and an elderly person differs from the average adult. To enable artificial circulation, the heart is intended to be squeezed between the chest bone and the backbone. The compression level often equals or is near to two inches, so it applies to all ages and gives or takes a few inches.The compression ratio for a single rescuer doing CPR on an adult, child, newborn, or neonate is 30/2. Despite how small the changes are, they call for immediate action. Two breaths are administered for every 30 compressions.Hence, the correct compressions-to-ventilations ratio during a 1-person rescue on a child is 30/2.
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The nurse is assigned to care for a postpartum client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is prescribed anticoagulation therapy. Which statement will the nurse include when providing education to this client
The statement which a nurse should include when providing education to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is prescribed anticoagulation therapy is to watch for excessive bleeding
The patient should also be educated to take medication as directedWhat is deep vein thrombosis?Deep vein thrombosis is a medical condition with a blood clot in the vein
In conclusion, the statement which a nurse should include when providing education to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is prescribed anticoagulation therapy is to watch for excessive bleed and to take medication as prescribed
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