The correct option is, (B) the value of q is positive.
What is photosynthesis?It is a chemical process or reaction that occurs in green plants or living creatures. During this process, carbon dioxide combines with water in the presence of sunshine to produce glucose and oxygen.As we all know, photosynthesis cannot occur in the absence of sunshine. As a result, the photosynthesis reaction is an endothermic reaction in which energy or heat is supplied to the system. This implies that the value of 'q' will be positive. If the system produces heat, the value of 'q' is negative.To learn more about photosynthesis from the given link
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Different nutrients become incorporated into the cell. What becomes part of the cell membrane?
A. Fats and Carbohydrates
B. Amino Acids and Carbohydrates
C. Proteins and Fats
D. Proteins and Water
abc or d with a simple explanation
Answer: B
Explanation:
The parts that are part of the cell membrane are Proteins and Fats. The correct option is C.
What is a cell membrane?The cell membrane is the outer covering of the cell that separates the internal cell from the outer environment. A semipermeable lipid bilayer makes up the cell membrane. The movement of materials into and out of the cell is controlled by the cell membrane.
The cell membrane is made up of two components, they are proteins and fats. Fats have hydrophobic ends that do not dissolve in water, and they give strength to the membrane.
Protein is of two types that are present in the cell membrane. They are integral membrane protein, which is present permanently, and peripheral membrane protein, which is present at some point in the membrane.
Thus, the correct option is C. Proteins and Fats.
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Determine if the following statement is true or false and why. “Primary and Secondary Consumers lose about 30% of the energy they absorb from food as heat.” A. True B. False, it should read “Primary Consumers lose about 5% of the energy they absorb from food as heat, while Secondary Consumers lose 30% as heat.” C. False, it should read “Only Secondary Consumers lose about 30% of the energy they absorb from food as heat.” D. False, it should read “Primary and Secondary Consumers lose about 5% of the energy they absorb from food as heat.”
The following statement is False. There is a constant flow of energy takes place from plants to plant eating animals to flash eating animals in the form of food and 90% of energy is lost as heat .
Hence, Option B is correct.
What is 10 % Law ?Lindemann in 1942 proposed the 10% law of energy flow in ecosystem. According to 10% law if the net primary productivity is taken to be 100% in producers ( first trophic level ) then only 10% of potential energy of plant material is actually assimilated by herbivores as food .during this act by herbivores 90% of energy is lost as heat (thermal heat ) to the environment .
Similarly only 1% of the potential energy of primary consumers is assimilated by carnivores ( secondary consumers ) and the rest 90% of energy of carnivores is lost as heat to the environment . Thus, during energy flow in ecosystem the energy fixed in one level is only 10% of its previous level and 90% of energy is lost as heat in each trophic level.
Thus it it concluded that there is a constant flow of energy takes place from plants to plant eating animals to flash eating animals in the form of food and 90% of energy is lost as heat .
Hence, Option B is correct.
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A student sets up an experiment to study the role of enzymes in digestion of food. In which test tube, the digestion of protein will occur?
In test tube B i.e., egg, albumin, pepsin and HCl the digestion of protein will occur as HCl will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
Pepsin will be activated by HCl to break down proteins into their simpler constituents.Some enzymes, like pepsin in this instance, are activated by HCl in a catalytic manner.Gastric juice is a mixture of lipase, other digestive enzymes, and the least amount of diluted hydrochloric acid required for digestion.Pepsin, a digestive enzyme found in the stomach that aids in the breakdown of dietary proteins, is also present in this gastric fluid.Foods like milk, beef, and other dairy products are high in protein, which is broken down into smaller molecules for digestion.The pepsin is activated by the HCl in gastric juice. The protein intake is then catalyzed by the enzyme pepsin, which causes it to be broken down into smaller peptide molecules.learn more about digestion of protein here: https://brainly.com/question/8937671
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A student sets up an experiment to study the role of enzymes in digestion of food. In test tube A, he added egg albumin and pepsin. In test tube B, he added egg albumin, pepsin and HCl. In which test tube, the digestion of protein will occur? *
Test tube A as pepsin will breakdown into simple molecules.
Test tube B as HCl will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
Test tubes A as pepsin will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
Test tube B as HCl will activate pepsin for breakdown of protein into simple molecules.
If a dna sequence is aggtccg in the 5’ to 3’ direction on the parent (template) strand, then the new daughter strand replicated from it should be _____ in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
If a dna sequence is aggtccg in the 5’ to 3’ direction on the parent (template) strand, then the new daughter strand replicated from it should be TCCAGGC in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
What is DNA sequence?The procedure of DNA sequencing involves figuring out the nucleic acid sequence. The DNA's nucleotide sequence. The four bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine are arranged in this way using any technique or technology.Knowing the placement of the four chemical "bases," or building components, that make up the DNA molecule is known as sequencing DNA. The sequence reveals to researchers the type of genetic data that is stored in a certain DNA segment.Numerous genetic details can be gleaned from the DNA sequence, including genes that code for proteins, regulatory instructions that can turn genes on or off, and disease-causing mutations.Finding the precise nucleotide order of a given DNA molecule is the process of sequencing.Learn more about DNA sequence here:
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The centrosome replicates during the s phase and begins to separate during the ______
The centrosome replicates during the s phase and begins to separate during the M phase.
What does the M phase stand for?
mitosis
M stands for mitosis. This is where the cell actually partitions the two copies of the genetic material into the two daughter cells. After M phase completes, cell division occurs and two cells are left, and the cell cycle can begin again.What happens during the M phase?
When a cell is in the M phase, it divides, first through nuclear division (mitosis), then through cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis). The DNA is replicated in the earlier S phase, and cohesins keep each replicated chromosome's two copies (known as sister chromatids) bound to one another.What is happening at the S phase and the M phase?
In the eukaryotic cell cycle, chromosome duplication occurs during "S phase" (the phase of DNA synthesis) and chromosome segregation occurs during "M phase" (the mitosis phase).
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Why are green algae placed in the protista while plants are placed in a separate kingdom?
Green Algae are placed in the Protista while plants are placed in a separate kingdom because Plants enclose and protect the embryo within the seed, while green algae do not.
Algae are difficult to define. Difficulty in classifying algae is determining whether they are Protista, plants, or whether they merit their own kingdom. Different classification systems answer this question in different ways, with some even splitting the group between the kingdoms Protista and Plantae.
Green algae can be either unicellular or multicellular. They live mostly in fresh water, but some can live on land in moist soils. A few green algae are found in marine environments. These organisms often live symbiotically with aquatic and marine animals. They are of particular interest because the group from which land plants evolved, the charophyta, are green algae.
The green algae are often classified in the Kingdom Plantae, based on two characteristics shared with higher plants:
Green algae use chlorophyll a and b in photosynthesis.The chloroplasts of green algae are enclosed in a double membrane.This second characteristic indicates that the chloroplasts evolved from endosymbiosis of a prokaryote, as is the case with higher plants. Also, analysis of genetic material indicates a high degree of relatedness between green algae and terrestrial plants.
Haploid spores give rise to a multicellular haploid leaf-like structure called a thallus. The thallus produces gametes. Green algae are isogamus, meaning they have only one type of gamete, rather than having separate male and female gametes. When two gametes meet, fertilization takes place and a diploid zygote is formed. The zygote then germinates, undergoes meiosis and forms haploid spores. The diploid phase of the life cycle is brief and unicellular. There are a few exceptions this general life cycle, such as the Ulva (sea lettuce), which has a multicellular diploid phase similar to that found in brown algae.
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Before tbp is loaded, which taf blocks the dna binding cleft of tbp and the n-terminal stirrup?
TAND-1 and TAND-2 of TAF-1 blocks the DNA binding cleft of TPB and the n-terminal stirrup.
Explain function of TAF(I).Part of a protein known as transcription factor IID can be made using instructions from the TAF1 gene (TFIID). The body's cells and tissues all have this protein, which connects to and binds to DNA there. The majority of genes' activity is controlled by transcription factor IID.A preinitiation complex made up of a number of initiation components must be assembled before RNA polymerase II can begin transcription of a gene from its core promoter region. It is believed that the TFIID transcription factor complex, which is made up of the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and TBP-associated factors (TAF(II)s), binds to the various promoters in a sequence-specific manner to initiate the assembly of this complex. Here, we identify and characterize a novel multiprotein complex made up of a number of TAF(II)s and other proteins but lacking either TBP or a TBP-like factor. In in vitro transcription experiments, this complex can take the place of TFIID on both TATA-containing and TATA-lacking promoters.Learn more about function of TAF(I) here:
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Part a :put the paramecium or protist slide on the base of your compound microscope.
Paramecium is a genus of eukaryotic unicellular ciliates and is widely studied as a representative of the ciliate group. Paramecium is widely distributed in freshwater, brackish and marine territories and is expected in sedentary aquariums and ponds. Some species are widely used in classrooms and laboratories to explore biological processes because they are easy to culture and easily induce binding and division. Its usefulness as a model organism has led some ciliate investigators to characterize it as a "white rat" in the phylum Ciliate.
What is compound microscope?Paramecium size range from 50 to 330 microns (0.0020 to 0.0130 inches). The cells are usually oval, rectangular, foot or cigar-shaped.The body of a cell is surrounded by a rigid but flexible structure called a membrane. It consists of an outer cell membrane (protoplasmic membrane), a layer of flat membrane-bound sac called the alveoli, and an intima called epiplasma. The cuticle is not soft, but consists of hexagonal or rectangular indentations. Each of these polygons is perforated by a central opening with a single cilia protruding. Between the alveolar sac of the cuticle, most Paramecium species have a dense spindle-shaped trichocyst, an explosive organelle that secretes thin, non-toxic filaments often used for defensive objectives.To learn more about compound microscope, refer to:
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At the end of meiosis i, there are two haploid cells, each with two sister chromatids per chromosome. True or false?.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
True.
At the end of meiosis I, there are two haploid cells.
What is the process of meiosis I?
Meiosis I refers to the initial nuclear division that takes place when gametes are formed. Due to the fact that the resulting cells have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell, it is also referred to as the reduction division. Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, and Telophase I are the four phases that make up Meiosis I.
Prophase I:
The chromosomes condense during prophase I and become apparent inside the nucleus. Following this chromosomal condensation, each chromosome pair's members align adjacent to one another and are referred to as homologous chromosomes because of their identical size and gene content.
At this stage, a mechanism known as synaptic attachment occurs between the two chromosomes in each pair along their lengths. Then, while the homologous chromosomes are tightly coupled, the individuals within each pair cross over, also known as recombination, to exchange neighboring pieces of DNA. The nuclear membrane eventually starts to deteriorate after the conclusion of prophase I.
Metaphase I:
Microtubules leave the spindle at the beginning of metaphase I and join the kinetochore close to the centromere of each chromosome. In specifically, microtubules from one spindle side bind to one chromosome while those from the other spindle side adhere to the other chromosome in each homologous pair. The chromosomal pairs subsequently align themselves along the equator of the cell, forming the metaphase plate, with the assistance of these microtubules.
Anaphase I:
The homologous chromosomes are separated during anaphase I by the disintegration and contraction of the microtubules, which causes the two chromosomes in each pair to be drawn toward the opposite ends of the cell. Because of this division, each daughter cell that emerges from meiosis I will have half as many chromosomes following interphase as the original parent cell. Additionally, each chromosome's sister chromatid still has a connection.
Telophase I:
In telophase I, the cytoplasm organizes and separates into two as the new chromosomes approach the spindle. Now there are two cells, and each one has half as many chromosomes as its parent cell did. The recombination that took place during prophase I also caused the two daughter cells to not be genetically identical to one another.
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Blue jays and crows eat caterpillars and mice. if the number of blue jays increases, what are the two likely effects on other populations?
If the number of blue jays increases, the two likely effects on other populations are both the number of mice and the number of caterpillars will decrease.
What are two likely effects on other populations due to the increment in Blue jays population?An organism that preys on other species in order to consume them as food is referred to as a predator. Prey is a term used to describe an organism that a predator kills. An ecosystem's ability to balance an expanding prey population depends on the interaction between predators and their prey.Blue jays and crows both rely on mice and caterpillars as food sources, as indicated by the current circumstance. Mice, caterpillars, and blue jays are the prey, while crows and crows are the predators. The two prey populations will decline if the number of blue jays rises.Hence, both the number of mice and the number of caterpillars will likely drop as the number of blue jays rises, having two possible implications on other populations.
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Squamous cell carcinoma. A/an _____ also called a solar keratosis, is precancerous skin growth that occurs on sun-damaged skin. It often looks like a red, tan or pink scaly patch and feels like sandpaper.
Actinic keratosis, also called solar keratosis, is a precancerous skin growth that occurs on sun-damaged skin.
What is skin cancer?Skin cancer is a type of disease caused by the uncontrolled growth of skin cells (i.e., keratinocytes that form the layer of the skin).
A precancerous condition is any type of environmental factor capable of altering the normal functioning of cells and eventually leading to cancer.
Actinic keratosis is a condition caused by excessively dry conditions in the skin as a consequence of a prolonged exposition to solar radiation, which may derive from serious conditions (e.g., skin cancer)
In conclusion, actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin growth that occurs on sun-damaged skin.
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Type your response in the box.
A forest fire damaged many trees in a forest. Squirrels and other plant-eating animals depend on these trees for food and shelter. Will the forest fire affect the carnivores of the ecosystem? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
The lack of trees causes the herbivores to have less shelter which leads them to be more exposed to carnivores so they might get eaten quicker. Slowly the amount of herbivores will die and there will be less food for the carnivores causing them to die aswell.
(I hope this helps!)
Atp energizes other molecules in cells by transferring a(n) ________ to those molecules
Atp energizes other molecules in cells by transferring a phosphate groups to those molecules.
What about phosphate group?A functional group that has an atom of phosphorus linked to four atoms of oxygen (three single bonds and one double bond). If there isn't a link between one of these oxygen atoms and another atom, the structure is a phosphate ion.Proteins require phosphate groups to be activated in order to carry out specific tasks in cells. The process of phosphorylation, which involves the addition of a phosphate group, activates proteins. All living things phosphorylate proteins at some point.Bone and teeth are formed with the help of phosphate. Additionally, phosphorus is a component of a number of essential compounds, such as those that the cell uses for DNA, cell membranes, and energy (deoxyribonucleic acid). Phosphorus is a mineral that the body gets from food and excretes in urine and occasionally stooll.The part of the DNA double helix that gives the molecule's structure support is known as the phosphate backbone.Learn more about phosphorus group here:
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In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is the fetal connection between the pulmonary trunk and which structure(s)?
In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is the fetal connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta.
The ductus arteriosus is a normal blood vessel that forms a connection between two main arteries i.e. the aorta and the pulmonary artery which carries blood away from the heart. The lungs are not active while a fetus is in the womb as the baby receives oxygen directly from the mother's placenta.
The fetal lungs are filled with amniotic fluid hence, they cannot be used to oxygenate the blood. Also, the arterioles in the lungs are constricted, which limits the amount of blood that can pass through the pulmonary system.
As the fetal blood leaving the placenta is already rich in oxygen and the lungs are non-functional, thereby, the ductus arteriosus permits a part of this blood to detour the pulmonary circulation to enter directly into the systemic circulation.
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Which of the following is a NATURAL
(NOT human-made)
greenhouse gases?
source of
A. burning fossil fuels in power plants
B. human agricultural practices
C. volcanic eruptions
D. anthropogenic (human-caused) deforestation
Answer:
Burning fossil fuels in power plants
Explanation:
Hope it helps
pls mark brainliest answer
Answer:
c
Explanation:
because volcanoes happen naturally humans and they release greenhouse gases in the atmosphere such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen :)
hope this helped !
Which of the following structures would carry out respiration.
a. germinating cowpea
b. decolorized leaf
c. boiled cowpea
d. dry leaf
Answer:
a. germination cowpea
Explanation:
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In the rostral medulla, if the lesion designated by the hash marks affected the anterolateral and dcml pathways, which side of the body would have impairments associated with these sensory modalities?
In the rostral medulla, if the lesion designated by the hash marks affected the anterolateral and dcml pathways, the side of the body that would have impairments associated with these sensory modalities is left.
What is rostral medulla?
The rostral medulla (RM), or ventromedial nucleus of the spinal cord, is a group of neurons located close to the midline on the floor of the medulla oblongata.
The rostral medulla sends descending inhibitory and excitatory fibers to the dorsal horn spinal cord neurons.
Thus, in the rostral medulla, if the lesion designated by the hash marks affected the anterolateral and dcml pathways, the side of the body that would have impairments associated with these sensory modalities is left.
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What tests would you order to test the diagnostic hypothesis that betsy's symptoms are caused by abnormal bleeding due to a bleeding disorder?
These betsy's symptoms are caused by abnormal bleeding due to a bleeding disorder-
Complete blood count (CBC) with platelets, red blood cell indices, and a smearReticulocyte countProthrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)Platelet function test (which has largely replaced the bleeding time in most centers)Factor VIII activityvon Willebrand factor antigenvon Willebrand factor activity (also known as Ristocetin cofactor)What is abnormal bleeding called?
Abnormally heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding is also called 'abnormal uterine bleeding'. We sometimes use this general term to describe bleeding that does not follow a normal pattern, such as spotting between periods. It used to be referred to as menorrhagia, but this term is no longer used medically.Learn more about bleeding disorder
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The branch of the Archaic Homo sapiens that was regionally adapted to Siberia and the Tibetan Plateau are called
The branch of the Archaic Homo sapiens that was regionally adapted to Siberia and the Tibetan Plateau are called Denisovans.
Who are Denisovans?Denisovans are very old hominins (tribe) which were present all over Asia during lower and middle Paleolith.These are now extinct species. Their evidence is obtained from physical remains and DNA available from fossils.According to fossil evidences, they are thought to have lived in Siberia, Tibet and Laos.These reached Tibetian Plateau and were well adapted to high altitude.According to DNA evidences, they had dark eyes, hairs, skin and Neanderthal like build and features.They are known to have interbred with modern humans and it is found that the Tibetians inherited high altitude gene from the Denisovans who were extinct soon after mating with the modern humans.Learn more about Denisovans here:
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What technology involves the examination of embryonic dna for the presence of disease-causing alleles?
The Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is the technology that is used for the examination of embryonic DNA for the presence of disease causing alleles.
What is embryonic DNA?As the embryonic DNA came half from paternal and half from maternal side so there are chances that during the fertilization there may be some extra allele that may cause dysfunction or diseases in the embryonic DNA.
The examination of the embryo is necessary to check its allele before the implantation to avoid any further problems. This may also help to know if there are any genetic disorders in the embryonic DNA.
It uses a DNA probe to screen a cell removed from an embryo for disease-causing alleles.
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is used to check if there is a genetic disorder in embryonic DNA by checking alleles.
This is checked before the embryo has entered the uterus before implantation or before pregnancy has begun.
The Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) use two methodologies :-
FISH ( Fluorescent in situ hybridization)
PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
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Among the tasks in coping with life-threatening illness described by kenneth doka, which phase is characterized by "living with the disease"?
Among the tasks in coping with life-threatening illness described by Kenneth Doka, the chronic phase is characterized by "living with the disease".
Kenneth Doka (1995–96) divides the process of dying into three phases, namely the acute, the chronic, and the terminal phases of dying, during which the individual initially is given the diagnosis, then lives with the disease and ultimately surrenders to death.
This phase can be quite long and the supporters may become comfortable in their caregiving role and adjust to the notion of death. This is an important adaptation since a great deal of the care for the terminally ill is given by the family members.
Doka (1998) notes that this phase "is often a period of continued stress, punctuated by points of crisis".
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Calcitonin _________ osteoclast activity, which will _________ blood calcium levels.
Calcitonin suppress osteoclast activity, which will lowers blood calcium levels.
What is Calcitonin?Calcitonin is a hormone secreted by thyroid gland.Calcitonin reduces the concentration of blood calcium level when it is above normal level.This polypetide hormone is made up of 32 amino acid and is mainly produced by C cells of the thyroid gland.In fish, birds and other non-mammalian animals, Calcitonin is produced by cells of the ultimobranchial body.To learn more about thyroid gland, refer :
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Answer: Calcitonin inhibits osteoclast activity, which will decrease blood calcium levels.
Explanation: I have same question on my review. Calcitonin decreases blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity.
Failure to launch refers to a syndrome wherein some children fail to leave home by age _____.
Failure to launch refers to a syndrome wherein some children fail to leave home by age by the age of 30.
What is Failure to Launch Syndrome?Failure to Launch syndrome refers to the inability of young adults to become self-sufficient and taking on adult responsibilities.
Failure to Launch is usually determined by the Age of 30. This limits a persons participation in life because such an individual may be unable to do things or survive alone.
There are a lot of factors that may be responsible for failure to launch. some of these factors may emanate from the child's physical and social environment.
Some other factors that may lead to failure to launch include;
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Shiga toxin kills cells by preventing protein synthesis.
a. true
b. false
In which part of the body is a ball-and-socket joint found? joint a: wrist joint b: elbow joint c: hip joint d: knee
Answer: joint c: hip joint
Explanation:
the hip joint is categorized as a ball and socket joint that allows for the body to sustain it weight and allows for large freedom of motionThe socket, also known as the acetabulum is found in the pelvisThe ball part of the joint is found at the top of the thighbone (femur) and connects with the socket to form the hip jointWhich character trait is most closely associated with elevated risk of cardiovascular disease?
Hostility trait is most closely associated with an elevated risk of cardiovascular disease
Conditions affecting the heart or blood vessels are collectively referred to as cardiovascular disease (CVD). Atherosclerosis, a buildup of fatty deposits inside the arteries, and a higher risk of blood clots are typically connected with it.
Unhealthy eating, inactivity, usage of tobacco products, and abusing alcohol are the main behavioral risk factors for cardiovascular disease and stroke. Individuals may experience elevated blood pressure, elevated blood glucose, elevated blood lipids, as well as overweight and obesity as a result of behavioral risk factors.
Although there is no known cure for cardiovascular disease, medication can help manage the symptoms and lower the risk of issues like heart attacks
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________ also known as birds, are now thought to be members of the large theropod family tree.
Dinosaurs also known as birds, are now thought to be members of the large theropod family tree.
Theropods, a group of two-legged dinosaurs that includes the enormous Tyrannosaurus rex and the smaller velociraptors, are the ancestors of modern birds. When compared to most current birds, the theropods that were most closely related to avians were giants, had large snouts, big teeth, and little space in between the ears.
Archaeopteryx, a hybrid animal with feathered wings but dinosaur teeth and a long bony tail, is the only fossil connection between birds and dinosaurs. These animals appeared to have evolved into birds in just 10 million years, a mere flash in evolutionary history, by acquiring feathers, wings, and flight.
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What other compound must be present along with urea for the urease enzyme to break down urea?
Water is the compound must be present along with urea for the break down of urea.Thus, option B is correct.
What does urea break down into?Urea and water combined together and results into the production of carbon dioxide and ammonia with the help of urease enzyme.
Urea + water = Carbon dioxide+ ammonia
Breakdown of urea occurs in a cycle known as urea cycle and it has five important steps:
Formation of carbamoyl phosphateSynthesis of citrullineCleavage of argininosuccinateGlucogenic and ketogenic amino acidsOxidation of Carbon skeleton of amino acidsTherefore,water is the compound must be present during the process of break down of urea.Thus, option B is correct.
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Your question is incomplete,but most probably your full question was,
What other compound must be present along with urea for the urease enzyme to break down urea?
A.ammonia
B.water
C. pyruvic acid
D. carbon dioxide
At the end of meiosis i, there are two haploid cells, each with two sister chromatids per chromosome. True or false?.
The answer is true. There are two haploid cells with two sister chromatids per chromosome at the conclusion of meiosis I.
After meiosis I, a chromosome's two chromatids are genetically separate. After homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I, two haploid cells are produced.
what is meiosis phases ?
DNA is copied prior to meiosis, just as it is during mitosis. Then, during meiosis, two cell divisions—meiosis I and meiosis II—take place. The DNA is divided into daughter cells during the first division, which is composed of several steps. The two alleles of each gene are divided into distinct cells in the division that immediately follows the initial division. each gene has 4 copies, each of which is present in 2 complete sets of DNA with 2 alleles in each set.
what are the Phases of Meiosis I ?
1. Prophase I
Condensed chromosomes adhere to the nuclear membrane.
A tetrad is created when synapsis takes place (when a pair of homologous chromosomes line up closely together). Four chromatids make up each tetrad. By crossing over, genetic recombination might take place. The nuclear membrane thins as the chromosomes separate from it. The nuclear envelope and nucleoli disintegrate, and the centrioles move apart similarly to mitosis. The chromosomes also start moving toward the metaphase plate.
2. Metaphase I
At the metaphase plate, tetrads align.
As you can see, homologous chromosome centromeres are oriented toward the opposing cell poles.
3. Anaphase I
The movement of chromosomes to opposing cell poles. Similar to mitosis, the chromosomes are drawn to the cell poles by the interaction of microtubules like the kinetochore fibers.
Unlike mitosis, sister chromatids do not split once homologous chromosomes move to opposing poles.
4. Telophase I
The homologous chromosomes are still being moved to the poles by the spindle fibers.
Once movement is complete, each pole contains a haploid number of chromosomes.
Most of the time, cytokinesis—the division of the cytoplasm—occurs concurrently with telophase I.
At the end of telophase I and cytokinesis, two daughter cells are produced, each of which has half as many chromosomes as the original parent cell.
Different activities take place in anticipation of meiosis II depending on the kind of cell. There is one thing that never changes, though: the genetic material never reproduces.
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True
At the end of meiosis i, there are two haploid cells, each with two sister chromatids per chromosome.
What are happens in meiosis i?When gametes are created, the first nuclear division, known as meiosis I, occurs. It is also known as the reduction division because the resultant cells have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell. The four phases of Meiosis I are Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, and Telophase I.Prophase 1:During prophase I, the chromosomes condense and become visible inside the nucleus. Each chromosome pair's members fit next to one another after this chromosomal condensation, and because of their similar size and gene content, they are known as homologous chromosomes.At this stage, a process known as synaptic attachment takes place between each pair of chromosomes along its length. The people within each pair then cross across, commonly known as recombination, to swap nearby fragments of DNA while the homologous chromosomes are firmly connected. After prophase I, the nuclear membrane gradually begins to degrade.Metaphase 1At the start of metaphase I, microtubules depart from the spindle and join the kinetochore near each chromosome's centromere. More specifically, in each homologous pair, microtubules from one spindle side bind to one chromosome while those from the other spindle side do the same for the other chromosome. These microtubules then help the chromosomal pairs arrange themselves to form the metaphase plate, which is located along the equator of the cell.Anaphase 1The dissolution and contraction of the microtubules, which cause the two chromosomes in each pair to be dragged toward the opposite ends of the cell, separate the homologous chromosomes during anaphase I. Each daughter cell that emerges from meiosis I will have half as many chromosomes as the original parent cell after interphase as a result of this division. The sister chromatids of each chromosome are still linked.Telophase 1:As the new chromosomes get closer to the spindle, the cytoplasm organizes and divides into two during telophase I. The two remaining cells each contain half as many chromosomes as their progenitor cell did. The two daughter cells were not genetically similar to each other due to the recombination that occurred during prophase I.
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Under conditions when there is very intense competition between memebers of the same species the distribution of individuals will tend to be:____.
As the intense competition of the species are observed in clumped distribution, so the answer is distribution of individuals will tend to be clumped.
What is intraspecies competition?The competition which occurs between individuals of the same species based on common need for a limited resources, leading to a reduction in the survival and reproduction rate.
Intraspecific competition for exploitation which is an indirect type observed when an individual consumes the available resources.
Intraspecific competition by interference observed when the individuals fight to access for other's food.
Hence, answer is clumped.
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