s−3(s+6)= ASAP I NEED ANSWER PLEASE

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct answer is option D, which is 105, 90, 75, 60, 45.

Using the z-distribution, it is found that since the p-value is less than 0.02, we reject the null hypothesis.

What are the hypothesis tested?

At the null hypothesis, it is tested if the proportion is of at most 59%, that is:

[tex]H_0: p \leq 0.59[/tex]

At the alternative hypothesis, it is tested if the proportion is greater than 59%, hence:

[tex]H_1: p > 0.59[/tex]

What is the test statistic?

The test statistic is given by:

[tex]z = \frac{\overline{p} - p}{\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}}[/tex]

In which:

[tex]\overline{p}[/tex] is the sample proportion.p is the proportion tested at the null hypothesis.n is the sample size.

For this problem, the parameters are:

[tex]p = 0.59, n = 900, \overline{p} = 0.63[/tex]

Hence the value of the test statistic is found as follows:

[tex]z = \frac{\overline{p} - p}{\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}}[/tex]

[tex]z = \frac{0.63 - 0.59}{\sqrt{\frac{0.59(0.41)}{900}}}[/tex]

z = 2.44.

What is the p-value and the conclusion?

Using a z-distribution calculator, for a right-tailed test, as we are testing if the proportion is higher than a value, with z = 2.44, the p-value is of 0.0073.

Since the p-value is less than 0.02, we reject the null hypothesis.

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The two quadrilateral with the listed properties are kite and rhombus respectively.

Properties of a kiteIt has two diagonals intersecting  at right anglesA kite is symmetrical about its main diagonalAngles opposite to the main diagonal are equalThe kite can be viewed as a pair of congruent triangles with a common baseIts diagonals are perpendicular

Properties of a rhombusAll sides of the rhombus are equalThe opposite sides are parallelOpposite angles are equalDiagonals bisect each other at right anglesDiagonals bisect the anglesThe sum of two adjacent angles is equal to 180 degrees, that is, are supplementary

Thus, the two quadrilateral with the listed properties are kite and rhombus respectively.

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Answer:

your welcome

Step-by-step explanation:

One to one means only one x value gives one y value

This only happens when x is greater than or equal to -1 [-1, infinity) or when x is less than or equal to -1 (-infinity, -1].

Non decreasing means the slope is zero or positive, so it has to be the first option for the domain [-1, infinity]

The inverse of f(x) = (x + 1)^2
y = (x + 1)^2
x = (y + 1)^2
Sq rt x = y + 1
(sq rt x) - 1 = y
f^-1(x) = (sq rt x) - 1

We cannot take the square root of -1, so the domain of the inverse of f is [0, infinity]

a = 44 by the alternate interior angles theorem.b = 136 by the same-side interior angles theorem.

answer

is true statement w= 4

the answer to this promise is w=4

Answer:

We call the denominator rational.

Step-by-step explanation:

For example:

[tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{\sqrt2}{\sqrt2 \cdot \sqrt2} = \frac{\sqrt2}{2}[/tex]

It's clear that the denominator is now a rational number, not an irrational one anymore.

**Disclaimer** Hi there! I assumed the question is to represent W in terms of all other variables (P, L). The following answer corresponds to this understanding. If it is incorrect, please let me know and I will modify my answer.

Answer: W = (P/2) - L

Step-by-step explanation:

Given equation

P = 2L + 2W

Factorize 2 out

P = 2 (L + W)

Divide 2 on both sides

P / 2 = 2 (L + W) / 2

P / 2 = L + W

Subtract L on both sides

(P / 2) - L = L + W - L

[tex]\Large\boxed{W=\frac{P}{2} -L}[/tex]

Hope this helps!! :)

Please let me know if you have any questions

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle{W = \dfrac{P}{2} - L}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for W, we have to isolate the W-variable. First, we can factor the expression 2L + 2W to 2(L+W):

[tex]\displaystyle{P = 2(L+W)}[/tex]

Next, we'll be dividing both sides by 2:

[tex]\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} = \dfrac{2(L+W)}{2}}\\\\\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} = L+W}[/tex]

Then subtract both sides by L:

[tex]\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} - L= L+W-L}\\\\\displaystyle{\dfrac{P}{2} - L= W}[/tex]

Therefore, we'll obtain W = P/2 - L.

Note that the given formula is perimeter formula of a rectangle where Perimeter = 2 * Length + 2 * Width.

So if we solve for W (Width) then we'll get Width = Perimeter / 2 - Length which can be useful to find width with given perimeter and length.

The conclusion that can be made based on the hypothesis is:

1. It's a valid conclusion.

2. It is a valid conclusion.

3. It is a valid conclusion.

How to illustrate the information?

According to the law of detachment, when the conditional and the hypothesis are true, the conclusion will be true.

Therefore, if 6x < 42, the value of x will also be less than 6. This is valid.

When an angle is more than 90°, it's an obtuse angle and since A is 103°, it's valid.

Also, the statement about the violin being a string instrument is logically valid.

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Angle HEJ measures 15 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

this just means that the first function with input value x = 0 is calculated. that result becomes the input value x for the second function. and that result becomes the input value x for the 3rd function. and that result is then our result.

to answer a and b we only need to look at the main operation of each function :

the first one uses only basic multiplication and subtraction.

the second one uses squaring.

the third one is a 1/x operation.

a.

since the final result is a negative number (-31), the second function with the square operation cannot be last.

because a square operation always delivers a positive result.

+a × +a = +a²

-a × -a = +a²

remember, for a square operation we multiply the same number by itself. therefore we cannot mix signs like -a × +a, because then they would not be the same numbers anymore.

b.

since the initial input value is 0, the third function (1/x) cannot be the first, because 1/0 is not defined.

c.

because of the "large" -32 term in the first function I guess that this will be the last one to create such a low negative result of -31.

since 1/x cannot be first, (x - 2)² is then first. that makes 1/x second, and (4x - 32) third, as mentioned.

let's try :

x = 0

(x - 2)² = (0 - 2)² = (-2)² = 4

x = 4

1/x = 1/4

x = 1/4

4x - 32 = 4×1/4 - 32 = 1 - 32 = -31

hurrah ! we are correct !

The angles in degrees to radian is as follows:

-54 degrees = -3π / 10 radian

How to convert from degree to radian?

The measurement is in degrees. Let's convert it to radian with respect to π.

Therefore,

180 degrees = π radian

-54 degrees = ?

cross multiply

Hence,

angle in radian = -54 × π / 180

angle in radian = - 54π / 180

angle in radian = - 6π / 20

angle in radian = -3π / 10 radian

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Hello there! Spinner B will give Maria the best probability of winning a prize. She should spin spinner B because it appears the circle is divided into fourths, where she has a total of 3/4 probability that she wins a prize. 2/4 (or 1/2) of this division is represented by the color orange, meaning that the highest probability is for Maria to land on orange. Both yellow and green are divided into 1/4, and because Maria wins a prize by landing on yellow or orange, we can add 1/4 and 2/4 to find that spinner B gives Maria a 75% chance (which represents 3/4 in decimal form) of winning a prize.

Spinner A has the same scenario, except that green has a 50% chance to be chosen while orange and yellow have a 1/4 chance of being chosen each.

Spinner C, however, represents that orange and yellow individually have a 1/6 chance of being chosen and green has a 4/6 chance of being chosen. This would mean that in this spinner, there is an approximate 66% chance that green would be chosen, which leaves orange and yellow with a total of an approximate 33% chance.

Because spinner B has one of the colors with the greatest fraction that are in favor of Maria winning the prize, she should go with spinning spinner B. If you need any extra help, let me know and I will gladly assist you.

The size of the second application given the size of the first application and the expression ( x - 3.45 mb) for the size of the second application is 293.55 MB.

Equation

Let

Size of the first application = x

Size of the second application= x - 3.45 mb

For instance,

if the size of the first application is 297 MB

Size of the second application= x - 3.45 mb

= 297 MB - 3.45 MB

= 293.55 MB

Therefore, the size of the second application given the size of the first application and the expression for the size of the second application is 293.55 MB

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Answer:

x+(x+5)=28

Step-by-step explanation:

girls(g)should be equal to x

boys(b) will therefore be x+5

x+(x+5)=28

The direct variation function is y = 0.3x

How to determine the direct variation function?

The direct variation from y to x is represented as:

y = kx

When y = 1.5 and x = 5, we have

1.5 = 5k

Divide by 5

k = 0.3

Substitute k = 0.3 in y = kx

y = 0.3x

Hence, the direct variation function is y = 0.3x

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Answer:20.00

Step-by-step explanation: next time include the table but i managed to find it anyway

[tex]y = 5x \\ switch \: y \: and \: x \\ x = 5y \\ solve \: for \:y \\ y = \frac{x}{5} [/tex]

Hi :)

I'd start by adding 5 to both sides of the equation. That would make the equation easier.

[tex]\boldsymbol{\sqrt{2x}-5=3}}[/tex]

[tex]\boldsymbol{\sqrt{2x}=2}[/tex]

The next step is to get rid of the radical sign.

Which operation will undo the square root? Squaring.

So that's why we square both sides:

[tex]\boldsymbol{2x=4}[/tex]

And Now we just divide both sides by 2

[tex]\boldsymbol{x=2}[/tex]

~[tex]\textit{\textbf{Learn More; Work Harder}}[/tex]~

:)

The best approach to calculating the stipulated 20% tip by means of fractions is to note that the tip is one-fifth of the total amount charged on the bill.

What is the equivalent of the 20% tip as indicated in the task content?

The percentage represented as; 20% can be expressed as a fraction.

This follows from the fact that the percentage, % symbol translates to divided by 100.

Consequently, we must note that the 20% translates to; 20/100 = 1/5.

Hence, the 20% tip is one-fifth of the total amount.

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The price elasticity of demand of the pen will be -0.2.

How to compute the elasticity?

The demand and supply schedule will be:

Price Qd. Qs

$10. 250. 100

$20. 200. 90

$30. 180. 80

The price elasticity of demand from $1 to $2 will be:

= Percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price

Percentage change in quantity demanded will be:

= (200 - 250)/250 × 100

= -20%

Percentage change in price will be:

= (20 - 10)/10 × 100

= 100%

Therefore, the elasticity of demand will be:

= -20/100

= - 0.2

The value gotten illustrates an inelastic demand.

In order to increase the total revenue, the price can be reduced as it will lead to more sales.

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Complete question:

Choose any product or service. Create the demand and supply schedule.

Calculate just one PED.

Is the demand elastic or inelastic?

What price change would you recommend to increase TR?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

slope-- 1/2

y intercept-- -4

To find the y-intercept, you have to set x equal to 0 because that’s where any line intercepts the y-axis. When you do that, you should get y= -4 for this equation. The slope, in this case is 1/2 because for every value of x, y is half of that as shown in the 1/2x portion of the equation.

Check the picture below.

The possible values of X for this game are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.......n, where n ≥ 1

How to determine the values of X?

From the complete question, we understand that Mr. A wants to plays the game until he wins

This means that

He might win at the first game and he might win after n attempts

So, the values of X are

X = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.......n

Hence, the possible values of X for this game are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.......n, where n ≥ 1

The probability that X = n

The probability of x is represented as:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n-x)

So, the probability that X = n is:

P(n) = nCn * p^n * (1 - p)^(n - n)

Evaluate the exponent

P(n) = nCn * p^n * 1

Evaluate the combination expression

P(n) = 1 * p^n * 1

This gives

P(n) = p^n

Hence, the probability that X = n is p^n

Prove that it satisfies the PMF conditions.

The distribution satisfies PMF conditions because

The sum of the probabilities is 1 No probability is negativeEach probability value is between 0 and 1 (inclusive)

Calculate E(X)

The expected value E(x) is calculated using

E(x) = n * p

So, we have:

E(x) = np

Hence, the value of E(x) is np

Calculate V(X)

The variance V(x) is calculated using

V(x) = √n * p * (1 - p)

So, we have:

V(x) = √np(1 - p)

Hence, the value of V(x) is √np(1 - p)

Study the memoryless property of X.

The memoryless property of X is that each probability of X is independent

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Answer:

one of several possible solutions :

18, 75, 105

Step-by-step explanation:

prime factors of 3150 :

3150 ÷ 2 = 1575

1575 ÷ 2 no

1575 ÷ 3 = 525

525 ÷ 3 = 175

175 ÷ 3 no

175 ÷ 5 = 35

35 ÷ 5 = 7

7 ÷ 5 no

7 ÷ 7 = 1

3150 = 2¹ × 3² × 5² × 7¹

these are the product of the longest streaks of prime factors in x, y and z.

the GCF(y, z) = 15.

the prime factors of 15 are simply 3¹×5¹.

so, y and z share only the factors 3 and 5.

the GCF(x, y, z) = 3.

since x is an even number, the elimination of 5 in the GCF is not surprising.

let's try the following :

x = 2¹ × 3² = 2×9 = 18

y = 3¹ × 5² = 3×25 = 75

z = 3¹ × 5¹ × 7¹ = 3×5×7 = 105

that uses all the factors of 3150, and their LCM is as the product of the longest streaks of their prime factors is

2¹ × 3² × 5² × 7¹.

fits.

the GCF(75, 105) is the product of the prime factors they have in common : 3¹ × 5¹ = 15.

fits.

the GCF(18, 75, 105) is the product of the prime factors ask 3 numbers have in common, which is only 3¹ = 3.

fits.

18 < 75 < 105

fits.

18 is an even number greater than 10.

fits.

there are more than 1 solutions.

e.g.

z = 2¹ × 3¹ × 5¹ × 7¹ = 210

is also possible.

The odds in favor of them winning is 20%

How to determine the probability

From the information given, we have that the probability of them winning the next game is 80%

P( winning) = 80% = 0. 8

The odds against them winning is given as;

1 - probability of winning

We have;

= 1 - 0. 8

= 0. 2

The odds in favor of them winning is simply the probability of them losing;

= 0. 2 × 100

= 20%

Thus, the odds in favor of them winning is 20%

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Answer: 3 loops

Step-by-step explanation: The loop is 1.2 miles, and the total walk is 3.6 miles. You want to find out how many laps are in the 3.6 miles. This can be found using division. 3.6/1.2= the number of 1.2 mile laps inside the 3.6 mile walk, which is 3 laps. hope this helped!

Area equals Length times Width.

since the width of this equation is 5 units Longer then its Length

W = L + 5

To put this area in a equation we could say

L(L+5)=A
Simplify the equation, L^2 + 5L = A.

The most suitable measurements for a box with a square base are 5cm (width) x 5cm (length) x 640cm (height). This box would be worth $4875

How to calculate the minimum value of the box?

To find the minimum value of a box that must have a square base and 16000 cm³, we must try different measurements to find the variable that represents the least value.

In this case, the variable that represents less value is a base of 5cm x 5cm and a height of 640cm. This means that the box would be worth $4875 as shown below.

Base

5cm × 5cm = 25cm²25cm² x 3 = $75

Sides

5cm × 640cm = 3200cm²3200cm² × $1.50 = $4800

$4,800 + $75 = $4,875

Additionally, we can check that the volume of the box is the required 16000cm³, as shown below:

5cm × 5cm × 640cm = 16000cm³

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Answer: [tex]\frac{10\pi}{3}[/tex] m

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](2)(\pi)(4) \left(\frac{150}{360} \right)=\frac{10\pi}{3}[/tex]