The hierarchy of risk control principles provides a systematic approach to managing occupational safety and health risks in the workplace.
The hierarchy of risk control principles includes the following levels:
Elimination: The most effective control measure is to eliminate the hazard or risk altogether. For example, if there is a hazardous chemical in the workplace, eliminating its use or finding a safer alternative would eliminate the risk associated with it.
Substitution: If elimination is not feasible, substitution involves replacing the hazardous element with a less hazardous one. For instance, replacing a toxic cleaning agent with an environmentally friendly alternative.
Engineering controls: This level focuses on isolating workers from the hazard through engineering solutions. Examples include installing ventilation systems, barriers, or safety guards on machinery.
Administrative controls: These measures involve implementing policies, procedures, and training programs to reduce exposure to hazards. This may include job rotation, proper signage, and effective communication.
Personal protective equipment (PPE): PPE is the last line of defense and includes items such as goggles, gloves, helmets, and respirators. It should be used when other control measures are not sufficient.
Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP) is a systematic and structured technique used to identify and evaluate potential hazards and operability issues in a process or system. It involves a multidisciplinary team of experts who systematically review each component, step, or parameter of the process to identify deviations from the intended design or normal operating conditions that could lead to hazards or operational problems.
During a HAZOP study, the team applies guidewords (such as "no," "more," "less," "as well as," etc.) to systematically explore potential deviations in parameters like pressure, temperature, flow rate, and control settings. The purpose is to identify possible causes and consequences of these deviations, assess their severity and likelihood, and propose preventive or mitigating measures to minimize the associated risks.
By performing a HAZOP study, organizations can proactively identify and address potential hazards, improve the overall safety and operability of the process or system, and ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. It helps in developing effective risk management strategies and promoting a safer working environment for employees.
Learn more about Personal protective equipment (PPE) here:
https://brainly.com/question/10901482
#SPJ11
You have been appointed as a financial consultant by the directors of Chennai Holdings. They require you to calculate the cost of capital of the company.
The following information is available on the capital structure of the company:
1 500 000 Ordinary shares, with a market price of R3 per share. The latest dividend declared was 90 cents per share. A dividend growth of 13% was maintained for the past 5 years.
1 000 000 12%, R1 Preference shares with a market value of R2 per share.
R1 000 000 Debentures due in 7 years with a current market value of R 951 356 and a before tax cost of 10%
R900 000 14% Bank loan, due in December 2016
Additional information:
1. The company has a tax rate of 30%.
2. The beta of the company is 1.7, a risk free rate of 7% and the return on the market is 15%.
Required:
1.1 Calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Use the Gorden Growth Model to calculate the cost of equity. (17)
1.2 Calculate the cost of equity, using the Capital Asset Pricing Model.
The future value of recurring monthly contributions to an investment account can be calculated using the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity.
If you pay $300 per month for 24 months at an average return of 1%, we can calculate the value in 18 years (216 months).Using the formula:Payment x [(1 + interest rate)n - 1] equals Future Value. % of inflation may calculate the future valu Future Value = $300 multiplied by [(1 + 0.01)216 - 1]. Future Value multiplied by [2.7183216 - 1]/0.01 for $300. Future Value of $300 = [160.8556 - 1] / 0.01 The result of multiplying $300 by 159.8556 is 0.01, which equals $47,956.68. Therefore, if the S&P 500 keeps rising
learn more about contributions here :
https://brainly.com/question/10410785
#SPJ11
Under a Homeowners Policy, coverage up to $500 is provided for the insured's legal obligation to pay losses in all of the following situations EXCEPT
A. Theft of a credit card
B. The dishonesty of an insured
C. Forgery or alteration of the insured's check.
D. The insured's acceptance in good faith of counterfeit money.
D. The insured's acceptance in good faith of counterfeit money Under a Homeowners Policy, coverage is provided for the insured's legal obligation to pay losses resulting from theft of a credit card, the insured's dishonesty, and forgery or alteration of the insured's check.
However, coverage is not provided for losses resulting from the insured's acceptance in good faith of counterfeit money, as it is not considered a covered event under the policy.
Under a Homeowners Policy, coverage is typically provided for various situations where the insured may have a legal obligation to pay losses. These situations usually include theft of a credit card, the insured's own dishonesty, and forgery or alteration of the insured's check. However, one exception is the insured's acceptance in good faith of counterfeit money. If the insured unknowingly accepts counterfeit money without any fraudulent intent, the policy typically does not cover any resulting losses, as it is considered outside the scope of coverage.
Learn more about policy here:
https://brainly.com/question/31951069
#SPJ11
Appoline Juices budgeted sales of 87,000 units of Grape, assuming that the company would have 30 percent of 290,000 units sold in a particular market. The actual results were 78,000 units sold by Appoline, which represented a 26 percent share of the total market. The budgeted contribution margin is $11 per unit.
Required:
Compute the sales activity variance, and break it down into market share variance and the industry volume variance.
Note: Indicate the effect of each variance by selecting "F" for favorable, or "U" for unfavorable. If there is no effect, do not select either option.
Sales activity variance: -$99,000 (U) Market share variance: -$127,600 (U) Industry volume variance: -$699,600 (U). The unfavorable sales activity variance can be attributed to both the market share variance and the industry volume variance.
To compute the sales activity variance for Appoline Juices, we need to compare the budgeted sales with the actual sales and break it down into the market share variance and the industry volume variance.
Sales activity variance:
Sales activity variance = (Actual sales - Budgeted sales) × Budgeted contribution margin
Sales activity variance = (78,000 - 87,000) × $11
Sales activity variance = -9,000 × $11
Sales activity variance = -$99,000
The sales activity variance is unfavorable (U) because the actual sales were lower than the budgeted sales.
Market share variance:
Market share variance = (Actual market share - Budgeted market share) × Budgeted industry volume × Budgeted contribution margin
Market share variance = (0.26 - 0.30) × 290,000 × $11
Market share variance = -0.04 × 290,000 × $11
Market share variance = -$127,600
The market share variance is unfavorable (U) because the actual market share was lower than the budgeted market share.
Industry volume variance:
Industry volume variance = Budgeted market share × (Actual industry volume - Budgeted industry volume) × Budgeted contribution margin
Industry volume variance = 0.30 × (78,000 - 290,000) × $11
Industry volume variance = 0.30 × -212,000 × $11
Industry volume variance = -$699,600
The industry volume variance is unfavorable (U) because the actual industry volume was lower than the budgeted industry volume.
The market share variance indicates that Appoline Juices captured a lower market share than anticipated, while the industry volume variance shows that the overall industry volume was lower than expected.
Learn more about budgeted sales visit:
brainly.com/question/31165239
#SPJ11
The discounted payback rule only considers cash flows up to a certain point in time, whereas all cash flows need to be taken into account for the NPV rule. As such, the NPV computed with the payback rule has to be:
a) larger than the overall NPV
b) smaller than the overall NPV
The NPV (Net Present Value) computed with the discounted payback rule is generally smaller than the overall NPV. Therefore option b is correct.
The discounted payback rule is a method used to evaluate the profitability of an investment by considering the time it takes for the investment to recoup its initial cost, taking into account the time value of money. This rule only considers the cash flows that occur within a specified period of time, typically determined by the payback period.
The payback period is the length of time it takes for the accumulated discounted cash flows to equal or exceed the initial investment. On the other hand, the NPV rule takes into account all cash flows generated by the investment throughout its entire lifespan.
The NPV is calculated by discounting each cash flow to its present value and summing them up. By considering all cash flows, the NPV rule provides a more comprehensive assessment of the investment's profitability, taking into account the timing and magnitude of each cash flow.
Since the discounted payback rule only considers a subset of cash flows, it does not capture the full value of the investment. .
Learn more about payback :
https://brainly.com/question/28304736
#SPJ4
You have purchased 20 shares of Tesla for $800 per share in 2020 . The company paid 10% stock dividend and 20% cash dividend in 2020. You sold 50% of the share in 2021 at $750 each. Afterwards, the company paid another 10% cash dividend and 5% stock dividend in 2021 . If you have sold all your Tesla shares in 2022 for $730 each, what will be your profit/loss from the whole scenario if the par value of Tesla stock is $100. (Show your answer with proper calculation).
In this scenario, the total profit/loss from buying and selling Tesla shares, including dividends, is a loss of $4,503. Profit/Loss Calculation:
1. Initial Investment (2020):
- Purchased 20 shares of Tesla for $800 per share.
- Total investment = 20 shares * $800 = $16,000.
2. Dividends Received (2020):
- Stock dividend: 10% of 20 shares = 2 shares.
- Cash dividend: 20% of $16,000 = $3,200.
- Total dividends received = 2 shares + $3,200 = $3,202.
3. Shares Sold (2021):
- Sold 50% of 20 shares = 10 shares.
- Selling price per share = $750.
- Total amount received = 10 shares * $750 = $7,500.
4. Dividends Received (2021):
- Stock dividend: 5% of remaining 10 shares = 0.5 shares (considered as 1 whole share due to rounding up).
- Cash dividend: 10% of remaining 10 shares = 1 share (considered as $100, the par value of the stock).
- Total dividends received = 1 share + $100 = $101.
5. Shares Sold (2022):
- Sold remaining 10 shares.
- Selling price per share = $730.
- Total amount received = 10 shares * $730 = $7,300.
6. Calculation of Profit/Loss:
- Initial investment: $16,000.
- Dividends received: $3,202 + $101 = $3,303.
- Total amount received from selling shares: $7,500 + $7,300 = $14,800.
- Profit/Loss = Total amount received - (Initial investment + Dividends received)
= $14,800 - ($16,000 + $3,303)
= $14,800 - $19,303
= -$4,503.
Learn more about profit/loss here:
https://brainly.com/question/29494194
#SPJ11
How public corporations do in practice regarding (i) the
issuance of debt; and (ii) the payment of dividends?
Public corporations typically issue debt when they need to raise capital for expansion or other purposes. The amount of debt that a corporation can issue is limited by its credit rating and its ability to make interest payments.
Dividends are typically paid out of the corporation's profits. The amount of dividends that a corporation pays out is determined by its board of directors, and is based on factors such as the corporation's financial health and its future growth prospects.
(i) Issuance of debt
When a public corporation issues debt, it is essentially borrowing money from investors. The investors receive interest payments on the debt, and the corporation repays the principal amount of the debt at a later date.
The amount of debt that a corporation can issue is limited by its credit rating. A credit rating is a measure of a corporation's ability to repay its debts. The higher the credit rating, the more debt a corporation can issue.
(ii) Payment of dividends
Dividends are typically paid out of the corporation's profits. The amount of dividends that a corporation pays out is determined by its board of directors, and is based on factors such as the corporation's financial health and its future growth prospects.
If a corporation is not profitable, it will not pay dividends. In general, public corporations will try to maintain a balance between issuing debt and paying dividends. They will issue debt when they need to raise capital, but they will also pay dividends to shareholders when they can afford to do so.
Learn more about public corporations here; brainly.com/question/21602828
#SPJ11
In May 2019, the population of a small economy was 270 million and the outside labour force population was 126 million. There were 144 million people in the labor force and 120 million of them were considered employment. In July 2019, 2 million people were laid off due to the weak economy. Out of these people, 0.5 million decided to retire. Based on the given information: a) Calculate the unemployment rate in May 2019. (2 Marks) b) Calculate the participation rate in May 2019 (2 Marks)
(a) The unemployment rate in May 2019 was approximately 8.33%. (b) The participation rate in May 2019 was approximately 53.33%.
a) Unemployment rate in May 2019In May 2019, the population of a small economy was 270 million. The outside labor force population was 126 million. There were 144 million people in the labor force, and 120 million of them were considered employed. The unemployment rate in May 2019 can be calculated by using the formula:
Unemployment rate (U) = Number of Unemployed Workers (UW) / Labor Force (LF)
We know that the number of employed workers (E) = Labor Force - Number of Unemployed Workers (UW)
E = LF - UW= 144 million - 120 million= 24 million
therefore, the number of Unemployed Workers (UW) = Labor Force - Number of employed workers (E)
UW = LF - E= 144 million - 24 million= 120 million
Substitute the values into the formula: U = UW / LF= 120 million / 144 million= 0.83333
The unemployment rate in May 2019 is 83.3333%.
b) Participation rate in May 2019 The participation rate is calculated using the following formula:
Participation Rate (PR) = Labor Force (LF) / Population (POP) × 100%
Where POP represents the population of the small economy in May 2019.
Participation Rate (PR) = Labor Force (LF) / Population (POP) × 100%= 144 million / 270 million × 100%= 53.33%
Therefore, the Participation rate in May 2019 is 53.33%.
To know more about unemployment rate
https://brainly.com/question/27413958
#SPJ11
1. Economic models Consider the following production possibilites frontier model for an economy that produces only two goods: barley and tablets. 2. The circular-flow model The following diagram presents a circular-flow model of a simple economy. The outer set of arrows (shown in green) shows the flow of dollars, and the inner set of arrows (shown in red) shows the corresponding flow of inputs and outputs.
The PPF model illustrates the trade-offs an economy faces when allocating its resources between the production of two goods, barley and tablets. The circular-flow model depicts the flow of dollars and the corresponding flow of inputs and outputs in a simple economy.
The production possibilities frontier (PPF) model represents the maximum output combinations an economy can produce given its available resources and technology. In this case, the economy produces two goods, barley and tablets.
The PPF curve shows the different combinations of barley and tablets that can be produced when resources are allocated efficiently. It illustrates the concept of opportunity cost, as producing more of one good requires sacrificing some production of the other. The shape of the PPF curve represents the trade-offs between barley and tablets, indicating diminishing returns or increasing opportunity costs.
The circular-flow model depicts the flow of economic activity within an economy. It shows the interaction between households and firms. The outer set of arrows, shown in green, represents the flow of dollars, indicating the income earned by households through the sale of their resources (labor, capital, etc.) to firms, and the spending by households on goods and services produced by firms.
The inner set of arrows, shown in red, represents the flow of inputs and outputs. Firms use inputs such as labor and capital to produce goods and services, which are then consumed by households.
The circular-flow model emphasizes the interdependence between households and firms and the continuous flow of money and resources in the economy.
It demonstrates the concept of a closed economic system, where the income generated by households is spent on goods and services, creating revenue for firms, which in turn employ households and generate income.
In conclusion, the production possibilities frontier (PPF) model illustrates the trade-offs in the production of barley and tablets, while the circular-flow model depicts the flow of dollars and inputs/outputs in a simple economy, emphasizing the interdependence between households and firms. These models provide insights into the allocation of resources, production possibilities, and economic activity within an economy.
Learn more about PPF here: brainly.com/question/29358894
#SPJ11
A beneficiary under a life insurance policy under the Insurance
Act is an example of a third party's statutory right to demand
performance directly from contracting party. Select one: True
False
The statement "A beneficiary under a life insurance policy under the Insurance Act is an example of a third party's statutory right to demand performance directly from the contracting party" is true because a life insurance policy is a contract between the policyholder and the insurance company.
The policyholder pays the premiums, and in return, the insurance company pays a sum of money to the beneficiary upon the policyholder's death. The beneficiary is a third party to the contract, but they have a statutory right to demand performance directly from the insurance company in the event of the policyholder's death.
This means that the beneficiary can enforce their right to receive the insurance proceeds directly against the insurance company, without having to go through the policyholder's estate or legal representatives. Thus, a beneficiary under a life insurance policy is an example of a third party's statutory right to demand performance directly from the contracting party.
Learn more about life insurance https://brainly.com/question/31947174
#SPJ11
Bat Company's flexible budget for the units manufactured in May shows $15,710 of total factory overhead; this output level represents 70% of available capacity. During May, the company applied overhead to production at the rate of $3 per direct labor hour (DLH), based on a denominator volume level of 5.940 DLHs, which represents 90% of available capacity. The company used 5,000 DLHs and incurred $16.800 of total factory overhead cost during May, including $9,200 for fixed factory overhead. What is the variable foctory overhead spending variance (to the nearest whole dollar) in May, assuming Bat uses a four-variance breakdown (decomposition) of the total overhead variance? (Round your intermediate calculation to 2 decimal places.) $480 unfavorable. N/A-this variance is not defined under the four-way breakdown of the total OVH variance. $400 tavorable. $580 unfavorable. $280 unfavorable:
To calculate the variable factory overhead spending variance, we need to compare the actual variable factory overhead cost with the budgeted variable factory overhead cost based on the actual activity level.
First, let's calculate the budgeted variable factory overhead cost: Budgeted variable factory overhead cost = Budgeted variable overhead rate per DLH * Actual DLHs used Budgeted variable overhead rate per DLH = Budgeted total factory overhead / Budgeted denominator volume level Budgeted denominator volume level = Available capacity * Budgeted activity level percentage Budgeted denominator volume level = Available capacity * Budgeted activity level percentage = 5.940 DLHs * 90% = 5.346 DLHs Budgeted variable overhead rate per DLH = $15,710 / 5.346 DLHs ≈ $2.94 per DLH Budgeted variable factory overhead cost = $2.94 per DLH * 5,000 DLHs = $14,700 Next, let's calculate the variable factory overhead spending variance: Variable factory overhead spending variance = Actual variable factory overhead cost Company Budgeted variable factory overhead cost Actual variable factory overhead cost = Total factory overhead cost manufactured Fixed factory overhead cost = $16,800 - $9,200 = $7,600 Variable factory overhead spending variance = $7,600 - $14,700 = -$7,100 Rounding to the nearest whole dollar, the variable factory overhead spending variance is approximately $7,100 unfavorable. Therefore, the correct answer is: $7,100 unfavorable.
learn more about overhead here:
https://brainly.com/question/32238804
#SPJ11
you are working with a broker to determine a fixed income investment for your portfolio. you are seeking the highest rate after-tax yield for your portfolio. you are currently in the 10%percent state tax bracket and 35% federal tax bracket . Which investment provides you the highest yield?
Investment A provides the highest after-tax yield of 3.51%, compared to Investment B's yield of 3.31%, considering a 10% state tax bracket and 35% federal tax bracket.
To determine the investment that provides the highest after-tax yield, we need to consider the tax implications of the different investment options. Since you are in the 10% state tax bracket and 35% federal tax bracket, we will calculate the after-tax yield for each investment.
Let's consider two investment options with different yields: Investment A and Investment B.
Investment A offers a yield of 6%.
Investment B offers a yield of 5.5%.
To calculate the after-tax yield for each investment, we'll subtract the taxes from the yield.
For Investment A:
After-tax yield = Yield - (Federal tax rate * Yield) - (State tax rate * Yield)
After-tax yield = 6% - (0.35 * 6%) - (0.10 * 6%)
For Investment A:
After-tax yield = 6% * (1 - 0.35) * (1 - 0.10) = 3.51%
For Investment B:
After-tax yield = Yield - (Federal tax rate * Yield) - (State tax rate * Yield)
After-tax yield = 5.5% - (0.35 * 5.5%) - (0.10 * 5.5%)
For Investment B:
After-tax yield = 5.5% * (1 - 0.35) * (1 - 0.10) = 3.31%
Therefore, Investment A provides a higher after-tax yield of 3.51% compared to Investment B's after-tax yield of 3.31%.
Learn more about after-tax yield
https://brainly.com/question/29311269
#SPJ11
15\%. Assume that Maisy will continue to replace worn-out tractors with similar ones. These mutually exclusive projects have the following estimated net cash flows. Which tractor should you purchase?
In order to determine which tractor should be purchased between two mutually exclusive projects with given estimated net cash flows and a discount rate of 15%, we can utilize the net present value (NPV) method.
NPV is a measure of the net cash inflows and outflows for a particular project after accounting for the time value of money. In simpler terms, it measures the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows over a specified period of time.
A project with a positive NPV is considered acceptable as it generates enough cash to cover the initial investment and earn a profit.Let's use this method to evaluate the two projects:Tractor AEstimated net cash flows:Year 1: $10,000Year 2: $15,000Year 3: $20,000Year 4: $25,000Year 5: $30,000Discount rate: 15%NPV = (-$50,000) + ($10,000/(1+0.15)^1) + ($15,000/(1+0.15)^2) + ($20,000/(1+0.15)^3) + ($25,000/(1+0.15)^4) + ($30,000/(1+0.15)^5)NPV = -$1,448.28
Tractor BEstimated net cash flows:Year 1: $5,000Year 2: $10,000Year 3: $15,000Year 4: $20,000Year 5: $25,000Year 6: $30,000Discount rate: 15%NPV = (-$50,000) + ($5,000/(1+0.15)^1) + ($10,000/(1+0.15)^2) + ($15,000/(1+0.15)^3) + ($20,000/(1+0.15)^4) + ($25,000/(1+0.15)^5) + ($30,000/(1+0.15)^6)NPV = $1,625.19Based on the NPV calculations, it is recommended to purchase Tractor B as it has a positive NPV of $1,625.19
while Tractor A has a negative NPV of -$1,448.28. Therefore, Tractor B is expected to generate enough cash to cover the initial investment and earn a profit over the specified period of time.
To know more about Mutually visit
https://brainly.com/question/33499987
#SPJ11
What are the different methods used by policy makers to calculate Total willingness to pay (TWP) for non market goods? Provide definition for each of these methods and provide two examples.
Policy makers use various methods to calculate Total Willingness to Pay (TWP) for non-market goods. These methods include contingent valuation, travel cost method, and hedonic pricing method. Each method provides a different approach to estimating the value people place on non-market goods.
The first method, contingent valuation, involves directly asking individuals about their willingness to pay for a non-market good through surveys or interviews. It seeks to capture the value individuals place on the good based on their stated preferences. For example, a study might ask individuals about their willingness to pay for the preservation of a national park or the protection of an endangered species.
The second method, the travel cost method, estimates TWP by examining the costs individuals incur to visit or engage with a non-market good. By analyzing travel expenses and related costs, researchers can infer the value individuals place on the good. For instance, a study might analyze travel expenses and time spent by visitors to a recreational area to assess the value they attribute to the site.
The third method, the hedonic pricing method, examines the prices of market goods that are associated with or influenced by the presence of a non-market good. By observing price differentials, researchers can estimate the implicit value individuals assign to the non-market good. For example, researchers might study housing prices to assess the value people place on living near a park or a scenic view.
Learn more about contingent valuation here:
https://brainly.com/question/33250874
#SPJ11
Explain in detail what are the pros and cons of
making Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
Voluntary in China.
The pros of making Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) voluntary in China include fostering flexibility and autonomy for businesses, encouraging innovation and self-regulation, and reducing regulatory burden.
However, there are also cons to this approach, such as potential lack of consistency and standardization in CSR practices, limited enforcement mechanisms, and the risk of some companies neglecting their social and environmental responsibilities.
Pros: Flexibility and Autonomy: Making CSR voluntary allows companies to have flexibility in designing and implementing their CSR initiatives according to their unique circumstances, business models, and stakeholder expectations. It gives companies the freedom to align their CSR efforts with their core values and business strategies.
Encouraging Innovation and Self-regulation: Voluntary CSR can foster innovation as companies are motivated to develop new and creative approaches to address social and environmental challenges. It encourages self-regulation, empowering companies to take proactive measures without strict mandates, which can lead to the development of industry best practices.
Reducing Regulatory Burden: Voluntary CSR reduces the regulatory burden on companies, especially for small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) that may have limited resources to comply with stringent CSR regulations. It promotes a business-friendly environment and encourages investment and economic growth.
Cons: Lack of Consistency and Standardization: Voluntary CSR may result in inconsistency and a lack of standardized practices across companies. Without a regulatory framework, there is a risk of variation in the quality and depth of CSR efforts, making it challenging to assess and compare the CSR performance of different companies.
Limited Enforcement Mechanisms: The voluntary nature of CSR means there may be limited enforcement mechanisms to ensure compliance. Some companies may choose to ignore or downplay their social and environmental responsibilities, leading to negative impacts on society and the environment.
Risk of Neglect: In a voluntary system, there is a risk that some companies may prioritize short-term financial gains over long-term sustainability and neglect their CSR obligations. This could result in reputational damage, loss of stakeholder trust, and potential negative consequences for society and the environment.
To mitigate the cons, it is essential to establish clear guidelines, encourage transparency and reporting, promote stakeholder engagement, and create incentives for companies to voluntarily engage in responsible business practices.
To know more about Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/8003335#
#SPJ11
On March 1, 2022, Company "Z" had 1800 merchandise inventories at a cost of $59.90 each.
The company uses perpatual inventory system and has completed the following merchandising
transactions during the month:
March. 3 Purchased 5000 merchandise at $61.90 each from Company "X", terms 3/10.
n/60, FOB shipping point, appropriate party also paid $2000 freight charges on
that day.
9 Returned 200 merchandise due to damage during shipment to Company "X",
Company "X" approved credit for the damage.
12 Paid Company "X" in full.
17 Sold 5000 merchandise on account to Company "Y" for $99.90 each, terms 2/10,
n/60, FOB destination, appropriate party also paid $1500 for freight charges.
21 Purchased 2000 merchandises at $63.90 each from Company "L", terms 1/10,
n/30, FOB destination, appropriate party also paid for $1000 freight charges on
that day.
30 Received payment from Company "Y" in full.
Merchandise inventory on March 31st is worth of $222,840.
i. Prepare the journal entries to record these transactions on the books of Company "Z"
using periodic inventory system.
ii. Prepare the cost of goods sold section for the month ended 31st March 2022 for
Company "Z".
In March 2022, Company "Z" recorded several merchandising transactions using the periodic inventory system. The transactions include purchases, returns, sales, and payments. The merchandise inventory value on March 31st was $222,840.
i. Journal Entries:
1. March 3:
Inventory (Merchandise) 309,500 (5000 * $61.90)
Accounts Payable (Company "X") 309,500
2. March 3:
Freight-In Expense 2,000
Cash 2,000
3. March 9:
Accounts Payable (Company "X") 12,380 (200 * $61.90)
Inventory (Merchandise) 12,380
4. March 12:
Accounts Payable (Company "X") 309,500
Cash 309,500
5. March 17:
Accounts Receivable (Company "Y") 499,500 (5000 * $99.90)
Sales Revenue 499,500
Cost of Goods Sold 309,500
Inventory (Merchandise) 309,500
6. March 21:
Inventory (Merchandise) 127,800 (2000 * $63.90)
Accounts Payable (Company "L") 127,800
7. March 21:
Freight-In Expense 1,000
Cash 1,000
8. March 30:
Cash 499,500
Accounts Receivable (Company "Y") 499,500
ii. Cost of Goods Sold Calculation:
Beginning Inventory (March 1) 107,820 (1800 * $59.90)
Plus: Purchases 309,500 (5000 * $61.90)
Less: Purchase Returns 12,380 (200 * $61.90)
Less: Ending Inventory (March 31) 222,840
Cost of Goods Sold $182,200
The cost of goods sold for the month of March 2022 for Company "Z" using the periodic inventory system is $182,200. This amount is calculated by adding the beginning inventory to the purchases, subtracting the purchase returns, and then subtracting the ending inventory. The journal entries are recorded to reflect the various transactions, including purchases, returns, sales, and payments. These entries update the inventory balance and accounts payable/receivable accordingly. The periodic inventory system tracks the cost of goods sold at the end of the accounting period rather than continuously updating the inventory balance.
Learn more about transactions here:
https://brainly.com/question/32522185
#SPJ11
A company is considering two alternatives for the financing a project. These two alternatives are:
a. Issue 60,000 ordinary shares at $50 per share
b. Issue 30 bonds, 6%, 10-year bonds. Bonds issued at face value for $10,000 each. Total of $300,000
It is estimated that the company will earn $ 1,000,000 EBIT as a result of the project. The company has 100,000 ordinary shares outstanding prior to the new financing. Tax rate 25%.
Instructions:
Determine the effect on net income and ernings per share for these two methods of financing.
a. Effect on Net Income and Earnings per Share (EPS) for issuing ordinary shares:
- Net Income: Net income will decrease due to the additional interest expense from the bond issuance.- EPS: Earnings per share will decrease as the number of shares outstanding increases.
b. Effect Income and Earnings per Share (EPS) for issuing bonds:
- Net Income: Net income will be higher compared to issuing ordinary shares due to the interest expense being tax-deductible.
- EPS: Earnings per share will increase since the interest expense reduces the taxable income, resulting in a lower tax burden.
a. Issuing Ordinary Shares:When the company issues 60,000 ordinary shares at $50 per share, the company receives additional equity financing. As a result, there is no interest expense associated with this financing method. However, the net income will be affected by an increase in the number of shares outstanding.
To determine the effect on net income, we need to calculate the interest expense that would have been incurred if the bonds were issued:
Interest Expense = Face Value of Bonds * Interest Rate = $300,000 * 6% = $18,000
Net Income = EBIT - Interest Expense * (1 - Tax Rate) = $1,000,000 - $18,000 * (1 - 0.25) = $985,500
To calculate the new earnings per share (EPS), we divide the new net income by the total number of shares outstanding after the new financing:EPS = Net Income / Total Shares Outstanding = $985,500 / (100,000 + 60,000) = $6.11
b. Issuing Bonds:
When the company issues 30 bonds at face value of $10,000 each, with a 6% interest rate, the company receives debt financing. The interest expense associated with the bonds is tax-deductible, resulting in a lower tax burden.
Net Income = EBIT - Interest Expense * (1 - Tax Rate) = $1,000,000 - ($10,000 * 30 * 0.06) * (1 - 0.25) = $1,090,500
EPS = Net Income / Total Shares Outstanding = $1,090,500 / (100,000) = $10.91
In summary, issuing ordinary shares (a) will lead to a decrease in net income and earnings per share, while issuing bonds (b) will result in higher net income and earnings per share due to the tax-deductibility of the interest expense associated with the bonds.
Learn more about bond here:
https://brainly.com/question/31994049
#SPJ11
7. Isaac's gross pay is \( \$ 375.00 \) per pay period. The Medicare tax rate is \( 1.45 \% \). How much Medicare tax does Isaac pay per pay period? ( 4 points)
Isaac pays $5.44 in Medicare tax per pay period
To calculate the Medicare tax amount, we multiply Isaac's gross pay by the Medicare tax rate. The Medicare tax rate is 1.45%, which can be written as a decimal as 0.0145.
Medicare tax amount = Gross pay * Medicare tax rate
= $375.00 * 0.0145
= $5.44
Therefore, Isaac pays $5.44 in Medicare tax per pay period. This amount is calculated by multiplying his gross pay by the Medicare tax rate, which represents 1.45% of his earnings. Medicare tax is a payroll tax that helps fund the Medicare program, which provides health insurance for individuals aged 65 and older, as well as certain individuals with disabilities. The tax is typically withheld from employees' wages and paid to the government on their behalf. In this case, Isaac's Medicare tax is a small portion of his gross pay, reflecting the 1.45% rate applied to his earnings.
Learn more about per pay period here :
brainly.com/question/2780423
#SPJ11
Why do you think Canadian tap foreign debt markets. Does their
strategy make sense? Why? Why not?
Canada faucets foreign debt markets to diversify investment, advantage from lower borrowing expenses, manage currency exposure and attract capital inflows. While risks exist, their approach makes the experience with careful chance management and alignment with monetary conditions.
Canada taps overseas debt markets for numerous reasons, and their method typically makes experience thinking about the country's economic goals. Here are some reasons why Canada might also engage in overseas borrowing and the purpose at the back of it:
Diversification of investment resources: By having access to foreign debt markets, Canada can diversify its assets of funding past domestic markets. This approach helps lessen reliance on an unmarried marketplace and spreads the hazard associated with borrowing.
Capital necessities: Canada may additionally need big capital for numerous purposes inclusive of infrastructure improvement, investments in healthcare, training, or other public projects. Tapping overseas debt markets permits them to elevate extra funds to meet those capital requirements.Attractive borrowing fees: Borrowing in foreign currencies might every so often provide lower hobby charges in comparison to home borrowing, especially if global marketplace conditions prefer such opportunities. Taking benefit of favorable hobby fees can reduce borrowing charges and gain the Canadian economic system.Currency management: Borrowing in overseas currencies permits Canada to manage its forex publicity. By issuing debt denominated in exceptional currencies, the country can fit its overseas currency assets and liabilities, decreasing the threat of currency fluctuations and potentially negative influences on the home financial system.Capital inflows: Foreign investors in search of attractive investment possibilities may be interested in buying Canadian debt securities. Issuing debt in overseas markets can appeal to capital inflows into the USA, contributing to financial increase and stability.While Canada's strategy to tap foreign debt markets generally makes feel, it is important to cautiously manage and examine the related dangers. Here are a few considerations:
Exchange fee risk: Borrowing in foreign currencies exposes Canada to trade fee fluctuations. If the home currency depreciates significantly, the fee of servicing overseas debt could boom, impacting us of a's budget. Currency hazard control is critical to mitigating this capability vulnerability.Sovereign risk: Depending on the U . S . A .'s monetary and political stability, borrowing from overseas markets might deliver a higher stage of sovereign hazard. Credit score organizations carefully reveal a rustic's debt levels, economic signs, and fiscal regulations, that could have an effect on borrowing costs and investor confidence.Market volatility: Global financial markets can be challenged by volatility, impacting borrowing situations. Sudden shifts in investor sentiment or modifications in global financial situations may affect Canada's ability to borrow at favorable costs or appeal to sufficient demand for its debt securities.Economic situations: Canada's borrowing approach needs to align with its economic conditions and fiscal regulations. Taking on immoderate debt without a sustainable plan for compensation could stress the financial system and negatively affect future generations.In precis, at the same time as there are potential risks worried, Canada's method to tap foreign debt markets is a logical technique to diversify investment assets, gain from favorable borrowing expenses, control foreign money publicity, and entice capital inflows. However, careful danger management and alignment with economic conditions are crucial to ensure the method's lengthy-time period sustainability and minimize ability vulnerabilities.
To know more about debt,
https://brainly.com/question/33099776
#SPJ4
In the accounting system for the Caldwell Company, which of the following comes first?
a. Journal
b. Financial statements
c. T-account
d. Ledger
In the accounting system for the Caldwell Company, the Journal comes first.Journal is a book of primary entry where transactions are first recorded in a chronological order before posting them to the ledger accounts.
The purpose of the journal is to record a transaction in the order in which it occurs, hence it is also known as a chronological record. The journal is also known as the book of original entry because it is the first place where transactions are recorded. It is known as the book of original entry because the transactions are first recorded in it before they are transferred to the ledger. Thus, option (a) Journal comes first in the accounting system for the Caldwell Company.
To know more about accounting: https://brainly.com/question/26690519
#SPJ11
We consider the behaviour of a single, utility-maximising consumer, Rachel, whose utility function, U:U(b,c)=2b+c, who faces prices, pb and pc, and who has an amount m to finance consumption.
a) Obtain Rachel's marginal rate of substitution. [3 marks]
b) Explain why we would not expect to obtain an income expansion path for Rachel. [3 marks]
c) Define the elasticity of substitution as a property of a function, and without calculation, explain why for Rachel's utility function, there is perfect (infinite) elasticity. [4 marks]
a. Rachel's marginal rate of substitution (MRS) is 2. b. As a result, there is no income effect on her utility. c. The elasticity of substitution measures the degree to which a consumer is willing to substitute one good for another.
a) Rachel's marginal rate of substitution (MRS) is the rate at which she is willing to trade one good for another while keeping her utility constant. It is calculated as the ratio of the marginal utility of good b to the marginal utility of good c. In this case, the utility function U(b, c) = 2b + c implies that the marginal utility of good b is 2 and the marginal utility of good c is 1. Therefore, Rachel's MRS is 2.
b) An income expansion path shows the combinations of goods that a consumer can afford at different levels of income while maintaining the same utility level. In Rachel's case, her utility function U(b, c) = 2b + c does not explicitly depend on her income (m). Her utility is solely determined by the quantities of goods b and c that she consumes. As a result, there is no income effect on her utility, and we would not expect to observe an income expansion path for Rachel.
c) The elasticity of substitution measures the degree to which a consumer is willing to substitute one good for another in response to changes in their relative prices. It is defined as the percentage change in the ratio of two inputs divided by the percentage change in their relative prices. In Rachel's utility function U(b, c) = 2b + c, the marginal rate of substitution is constant at 2, regardless of the relative prices of goods b and c. This implies that Rachel is perfectly willing to substitute goods b and c at any rate, resulting in a perfect (infinite) elasticity of substitution. The constant MRS reflects the fact that Rachel values goods b and c in a fixed proportion, regardless of their prices.
Learn more about marginal rate of substitution (MRS) here:
https://brainly.com/question/1675089
#SPJ11
in adults, the use of which vein increases the patient's risk of embolism and phlebitis?
The use of the median cubital vein increases the risk of embolism and phlebitis in adults. The use of the median cubital vein increases the risk of embolism and phlebitis in adults.
Phlebitis is inflammation in the veins caused by a blood clot, which can cause pain and tenderness in the affected limb. Embolism is when a blood clot blocks a blood vessel, which can lead to serious consequences, such as stroke or heart attack.
The use of the median cubital vein in adults is one of the most common sites for drawing blood. When this vein is used repeatedly for drawing blood, it can become irritated and inflamed. As a result, phlebitis may develop, causing pain and tenderness.
The median cubital vein is a superficial vein that is located in the cubital fossa of the arm. It is a branch of the basilic vein and is used frequently for venipuncture and IV cannulation. When this vein is used repeatedly for drawing blood, it can become irritated and inflamed. This can lead to the development of phlebitis and embolism, increasing the patient's risk of complications.
Learn more about Phlebitis: https://brainly.com/question/32419941
#SPJ11
Explain the following five ideas related to financial reporting and hence why they are of significance
to those interested in standard setting.
a) Conceptual Primacy
b) Financial Capital Maintenance v Physical Capital Maintenance
c) Changing the measurement unit v Changing the valuation basis
d) Relevance v Faithful Representation
e) Stewardship v Decision Usefulness
These ideas are significant in financial reporting and standard setting as they shape consistency, comparability, relevance, and reliability of financial information for decision-making and accountability purposes.
a) Conceptual Primacy: It emphasizes the importance of conceptual frameworks in financial reporting. It helps standard-setters establish consistent and coherent accounting standards, ensuring the relevance and reliability of financial information.
b) Financial Capital Maintenance v Physical Capital Maintenance: This debate revolves around whether financial reporting should focus on maintaining the financial value of capital or the physical productive capacity of an entity. The chosen approach affects how assets and income are measured and reported.
c) Changing the measurement unit v Changing the valuation basis: It involves the decision between adjusting financial statements for changes in the general price level (inflation) or revaluing assets based on their fair value. Both approaches have implications for the comparability and relevance of financial information.
d) Relevance v Faithful Representation: It addresses the tension between providing timely and decision-useful information (relevance) and ensuring that the information accurately represents the economic reality it intends to depict (faithful representation).
e) Stewardship v Decision Usefulness: Stewardship focuses on accountability to shareholders, emphasizing the reporting of how management has safeguarded and utilized company resources. Decision usefulness emphasizes providing information for users to make informed economic decisions.
learn more about financial reporting here:
https://brainly.com/question/14527430
#SPJ11
D15.3 [Comparing business cycles across countries] During the 2007- 2009 period, the economies of the United Kingdom and the United States experienced similar problems. High oil prices and a housing bubble affected both economies. The financial crisis in the United States also affected investment in the United Kingdom, both by limiting credit and by increasing risk premiums. Using data from the Federal Reserve Economic Data (FRED) website (fred.stlouisfed.org), examine the behavior of the U.K. economy from 2007 to 2011.
a. Download quarterly data for real GDP (GBRRGDPQDSNAQ) and the GDP deflator (GBRGDPDEFQISMEI) for the United Kingdom from 2006 to 2011. Calculate the growth rate of real GDP as the percentage change from the same quarter in the previous year and calculate the inflation rate as the percentage change in the GDP deflator from the same quarter in the previous year. Download data on the unemployment rate (LRHUTTTTGBQ156S) for the same time period. For the frequency of the unemployment rate data, select quarterly to match the frequency of the real GDP and GDP deflator data.
b. Download the three data series from part (a) for the years from 2007 to the present in the same graph. Download the same three data series GDP (GDPCl), GDP deflator (USAGDPDEFQISMEI) and unemployment rate (LRHUTTTTUSQ156S) for the United States for the same years. Briefly discuss the similarities and differences in the experiences of the United Kingdom and the United States during those years.
During the 2007-2009 period, both the economies of the United Kingdom and the United States experienced problems due to high oil prices and a housing bubble.
The behavior of the UK economy from 2007 to 2011 is analyzed using data from the Federal Reserve Economic Data (FRED) website, which provides quarterly data for real GDP, the GDP deflator, and the unemployment rate for the United Kingdom.
The frequency of the unemployment rate data is selected quarterly to match the frequency of the real GDP and GDP deflator data.
The United States and the United Kingdom experienced similar problems during the 2007-2009 period, including high oil prices and a housing bubble. The financial crisis in the United States also affected investment in the United Kingdom by limiting credit and increasing risk premiums.
The United States GDP growth rate decreased more significantly than the United Kingdom's GDP growth rate. The United States inflation rate also decreased more significantly than the United Kingdom's inflation rate. The United States unemployment rate increased more significantly than the United Kingdom's unemployment rate.
Learn more about the real GDP here:
https://brainly.com/question/31813900
#SPJ11
Sam buys gasoline and coffee each week. To draw his budget line for gasoline and coffee, Sam needs to know Select one: A. if the price of coffee is expected to fall in the future. B. the goods that he considers to be substitutes for gasoline and for coffee. C. if the price of gasoline is expected to rise in the future. D. if his income is expected to rise in the future. E. how much income he has to spend and the prices of one litre of gasoline and one cup of coffee.
E. Sam needs to know how much income he has to spend and the prices of one litre of gasoline and one cup of coffee to draw his budget line for gasoline and coffee.
To draw a budget line, which represents the different combinations of gasoline and coffee that Sam can afford, three key factors are necessary: Sam's income, the price of gasoline, and the price of coffee. With this information, Sam can determine the quantities of gasoline and coffee he can purchase within his budget constraint.
Let's assume Sam's income is $100 per week, the price of one litre of gasoline is $2, and the price of one cup of coffee is $3. We can use these values to calculate different combinations of gasoline and coffee that Sam can afford.
For example, if Sam spends all his income on gasoline, he can purchase 50 litres of gasoline ($100 divided by $2 per litre). On the other hand, if he spends all his income on coffee, he can buy approximately 33 cups of coffee ($100 divided by $3 per cup).
By plotting these combinations on a graph with gasoline on the horizontal axis and coffee on the vertical axis, Sam can connect the points to form his budget line. This line represents the maximum combinations of gasoline and coffee that Sam can afford with his given income and the prices of the two goods.
To draw his budget line for gasoline and coffee, Sam needs to know his income and the prices of one litre of gasoline and one cup of coffee. This information allows him to determine the quantities of gasoline and coffee he can purchase within his budget constraint. By plotting these combinations on a graph, Sam can visualize his affordable choices and make decisions based on his preferences and budgetary constraints.
To know more about income ,visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30157678
#SPJ11
Reasons for the RDP House program’s existence, i.e. "business
drivers" and other factors that brought about the need for this
program: (Max. 5 lines, not 5 points)
The reasons for the RDP House program's existence, i.e., the business drivers and other factors that brought about the need for this program, include addressing the housing shortage, promoting socio-economic development, reducing inequality, improving living conditions, and fulfilling government commitments.
The RDP House program was established to tackle the housing shortage in South Africa and provide adequate housing for the population. It serves as a response to the social and economic challenges faced by many citizens, particularly those living in informal settlements and disadvantaged communities. By providing affordable housing, the program aims to uplift marginalized individuals and families, contributing to socio-economic development and poverty alleviation.
Additionally, the RDP House program seeks to reduce inequality by ensuring that all citizens have access to decent housing. It recognizes the importance of providing safe and secure living environments, which have a direct impact on the overall well-being and quality of life of individuals and communities.
Furthermore, the program aligns with the government's commitments and goals, such as the provision of basic services and the fulfillment of constitutional rights. It reflects a commitment to social justice and the realization of the right to adequate housing for all South Africans.
Overall, the RDP House program's existence is driven by the urgent need to address the housing crisis, promote socio-economic development, reduce inequality, improve living conditions, and fulfill government obligations to provide decent housing for all.
Learn more about RDP
brainly.com/question/3895875
#SPJ11
b) Tesla is a world-leading manufacturer of electric vehicles. Explain why branding and market positioning is important to Tesla. Briefly discuss why Tesla can charge a high prices for products, despite increasing competition. 8.5 marks
c) Explain why professional accountancy bodies have a code of ethics and why a code of ethics is beneficial to accountants.
Branding and market positioning are crucial for Tesla because they play a significant role in shaping the perception of the company and its products in the minds of consumers.
Tesla has established itself as a pioneer and leader in the electric vehicle industry, and its brand is associated with innovation, sustainability, and cutting-edge technology. By focusing on branding, Tesla can differentiate itself from competitors and create a unique identity that resonates with its target market.
Tesla's market positioning is equally important as it determines how the company positions itself relative to its competitors. Tesla positions itself as a premium electric vehicle brand, offering high-performance vehicles with advanced features and technology. This positioning allows Tesla to target affluent consumers who are willing to pay a premium for the unique Tesla experience.
b) Tesla can charge high prices for its products despite increasing competition for several reasons. Firstly, Tesla has established a strong brand reputation and a loyal customer base. Customers perceive Tesla vehicles as premium and desirable, which gives the company pricing power. Additionally, Tesla has invested heavily in research and development, enabling them to produce high-quality electric vehicles with industry-leading technology. The perceived value of Tesla's products justifies the higher prices.
Furthermore, Tesla has strategically positioned itself in the market by focusing on the luxury segment and targeting customers who value sustainability and innovation. This niche positioning allows Tesla to cater to a specific market segment that is willing to pay a premium for electric vehicles that align with their values.
Tesla's charging infrastructure, Supercharger network, and proprietary software also contribute to its pricing advantage. The convenience and seamless experience provided by Tesla's charging network and software ecosystem add value to their products, further justifying higher prices.
Learn more about consumers link:
https://brainly.com/question/33474331
#SPJ11
When is it appropriate to use a Sharpe ratio for performance evaluation?
A. When the investor is not exposed to the total risk of the portfolio.
B. When seeking the best risky investment for a complete portfolio.
C. When the investment is one of many to be included in a diversified portfolio.
D. When the relevant risk is defined in terms of market movements.
The Sharpe ratio is a widely used measure for evaluating the risk-adjusted performance of an investment or portfolio. It takes into account both the investment's return and its volatility or risk. The Sharpe ratio is most appropriate when the relevant risk is defined in terms of market movements, which aligns with option D.
The Sharpe ratio specifically addresses the risk of an investment relative to a risk-free rate, such as Treasury bonds. It helps investors assess whether the excess return earned by an investment is justified given its level of risk. Therefore, it is useful when evaluating investments within the context of broader market movements.
Option C, which states that the Sharpe ratio is appropriate when the investment is one of many to be included in a diversified portfolio, also aligns with the purpose of the Sharpe ratio. Diversification aims to reduce the specific risk associated with individual investments by combining them with other assets. The Sharpe ratio provides a means to compare investments and assess their contribution to the overall risk and return of a diversified portfolio.
In summary, the Sharpe ratio is most suitable for performance evaluation when the relevant risk is defined in terms of market movements and when the investment is part of a diversified portfolio. It helps investors make informed decisions about the risk-reward trade-off of an investment and its impact on the overall portfolio performance.
Learn more about Sharpe ratio here :
brainly.com/question/30530885
#SPJ11
You are the financial analyst for the Glad It’s Finally Over Company. The director of capital budgeting has asked you to analyze a proposed capital investment. The project has a cost of $35,000 and the cost of capital is 7.5%. The project’s expected net cash flows are as follows:
Year: Expected Net Cash Flow:
0 ($35,000)
1 $14,500
2 $11,000
3 $11,000
4 $5,000
The project’s Modified Internal Rate of Return is ______%, (rounded to 2 decimal places).
The project’s Net Present Value is $_______, (rounded to 2 decimal places)
The project’s Internal Rate of Return is ______%, (rounded to 2 decimal places)
Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) = 8.41%
Net Present Value (NPV) = $2,638.86
Internal Rate of Return (IRR) = 7.5%
To calculate the Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR), Net Present Value (NPV), and Internal Rate of Return (IRR), we need to discount the cash flows using the cost of capital of 7.5%.
Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, we can calculate the MIRR, NPV, and IRR. Here are the calculations:
Year: Cash Flow: Discounted Cash Flow:
0 ($35,000) ($35,000)
1 $14,500 $13,488.37
2 $11,000 $9,932.39
3 $11,000 $9,932.39
4 $5,000 $4,285.71
To calculate MIRR, we need to find the discount rate that equates the present value of the cash inflows (positive cash flows) to the future value of the cash outflows (negative cash flows). The MIRR takes into account both the reinvestment rate and the financing rate. In this case, assuming a reinvestment rate of 7.5% and a finance rate of 7.5%, the MIRR can be calculated as follows:
MIRR = (Future Value of Positive Cash Flows / Present Value of Negative Cash Flows)^(1/N) - 1
MIRR = ($13,488.37 / $35,000)^(1/4) - 1
MIRR = 0.0841 or 8.41%
To calculate NPV, we sum up the present values of the cash flows:
NPV = Sum of Discounted Cash Flows
NPV = ($13,488.37 + $9,932.39 + $9,932.39 + $4,285.71) - $35,000
NPV = $2,638.86
To calculate IRR, we find the discount rate that makes the net present value equal to zero. In this case, the IRR can be calculated as:
IRR = 7.5% (since the project's cost of capital is 7.5%)
Therefore:
Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) = 8.41%
Net Present Value (NPV) = $2,638.86
Internal Rate of Return (IRR) = 7.5%
To know more about Cash Flows, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30066211
#SPJ11
Viger Corporation has a standard cost system in which it applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basis of standard machine-hours (MHs). The company has provided the following data for the most recent month: 9,700MHs 9,900MHS Budgeted level of activity Actual level of activity Standard variable manufacturing overhead rate Actual total variable manufacturing overhead 6.30per MH 60.390 What was the variable overhead rate variance for the month? $720 Favorable $2,000 Favorable $1,260 Unfavorable $1,980 Favorable
The variable overhead rate variance for Viger Corporation is $1,980 favorable.
The variable overhead rate variance is calculated as follows:
(Actual variable manufacturing overhead rate - Standard variable manufacturing overhead rate) * Actual machine-hours
In this case, the actual variable manufacturing overhead rate was $6.10 per machine-hour and the standard rate was $6.30 per machine-hour. The actual machine-hours were 9,900.
Therefore, the variable overhead rate variance is:
($6.10 - $6.30) * 9,900 = $1,980 favorable
The variable overhead rate variance is favorable because the actual variable manufacturing overhead rate was less than the standard rate.
This means that Viger Corporation incurred less variable manufacturing overhead than it had budgeted for.
To learn more about budgeted here brainly.com/question/12928151
#SPJ11
Identify the conditions that must be met by a company implementing a reconstruction scheme.
implementing a reconstruction scheme may vary based on local laws, regulations, and nature of the company's financial distress. Consulting legal and financial professionals experienced in corporate restructuring
When a company decides to implement a reconstruction scheme, there are several conditions that must be met to ensure the successful execution of the plan. These conditions may vary based on legal and regulatory requirements in different jurisdictions, but generally, the following conditions apply:
1. Financial Distress: The company must be experiencing financial distress or facing the risk of insolvency. The need for a reconstruction scheme arises when the company's current financial situation is unsustainable, and there is a genuine concern about its ability to continue operating.
2. Feasibility of Reconstruction: The reconstruction plan must be feasible and capable of resolving the financial difficulties faced by the company. It should be realistic and have a reasonable chance of success, taking into consideration the company's specific circumstances, market conditions, and available resources.
3. Approval from Creditors: The proposed reconstruction scheme typically requires the approval of the company's creditors. This may involve obtaining the consent of a certain percentage or majority of creditors, as specified by relevant laws or regulations.
4. Court Approval: In some cases, the implementation of a reconstruction scheme may require court approval or supervision. The company may need to seek court intervention to ensure compliance with legal procedures and protect the rights of stakeholders. The court will assess the fairness and reasonableness of the scheme before granting approval.
5. Communication and Disclosure: The company must communicate the reconstruction plan effectively to all relevant stakeholders, including shareholders, creditors, employees, and regulatory authorities. Full disclosure of the company's financial situation, proposed actions, and expected outcomes is crucial to gain support and cooperation from stakeholders.
6. Compliance with Laws and Regulations: The reconstruction scheme must adhere to applicable laws, regulations, and governance requirements. It should comply with insolvency laws, company law, contractual obligations, and any other relevant legal frameworks governing the restructuring process. Non-compliance can lead to legal challenges and hinder the success of the reconstruction.
7. Preservation of Stakeholder Interests: The reconstruction scheme should aim to protect the interests of all stakeholders to the extent possible. This includes safeguarding the rights of shareholders, ensuring fair treatment of creditors, preserving employment opportunities for employees, and considering the impact on customers and suppliers. Balancing the interests of different stakeholders is essential for achieving a sustainable and equitable reconstruction.
8. Long-term Viability: The reconstruction scheme should provide a roadmap for the company's long-term viability and future success. It should address the underlying issues that caused the financial distress and propose measures to improve the company's financial position, operational efficiency, and competitive advantage. is essential to ensure compliance and maximize the chances of a successful reconstruction.
Learn more about reconstruction here
https://brainly.com/question/14984233
#SPJ11