Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase is activated in response to a glucagon signal.
What is the purpose of Glucagon signals?Glucagon signals specify that fuel molecules are required in the bloodstream.So these signals activate Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase (F1, 6BP) so as to increase the level of sugar and other fuels required for production of energy.In the process of gluconeogenesis, new glucose molecules are synthesized from other non carbohydrate sources.As glucose is required in the bloodstream so F-1, 6BP should be activated as it acts as a rate limiting enzyme in gluconeogenesis.Gluconeogenesis occurs when the dietary intake of glucose is very low. Glucose is required as a source of energy by almost all body cells so in case of less oxygen it is synthesized from other molecules like amino acids.Learn more about gluconeogenesis here:
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Cody and zach are twins who are genetically identical. What type of twins are they?
The twins Cody and Zach share the same genetic makeup. They are monozygotic twins.
How twins are formed?
Twins are two children born from a single pregnancy. Twins may be monozygotic (also known as "identical"), in which case they originate from a single zygote that divides into two eggs, or dizygotic (also known as "separate"), in which case each twin originates from a distinct egg that is fertilized by a different sperm cell.
Identical or monozygotic twins share the same sex since they are created from a single zygote, whereas fraternal twins might or might not. Rarely, twins may have separate dads and the same mother.In contrast, a singleton is a general word for one child of multiple births, while a multiple is used to refer to a fetus that grows alone in the womb, which is the much more usual scenario in humans. Doppelgängers are unrelated lookalikes who resemble twins in both physical and behavioral ways.Learn more about monozygotic twins here:
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Which structure(s) coordinates daily cycles of activity that are linked to the day-night cycle??
A structure that coordinates daily cycles of activity that are linked to the day-night cycle is suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).
The anterior region of the hypothalamus has a bilateral structure called the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN). It controls the majority of the body's circadian rhythms and serves as the circadian timing system's main pacemaker.
The SCN gets suggestions from Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs) project through the retino-thalamic tract to neurons in the SCN via glutamatergic synapses, providing the photic input. The circadian clock is synchronised as a result.
Therefore, A structure that coordinates daily cycles of activity that are linked to the day-night cycle is suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).
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Which gland in the endocrine system primarily controls the body's response to a stressful situation? pituitary adrenal thyroid pineal
Answer: There are 2 correct answers for this question: adrenal and pituitary. However, I believe the answer you're looking for is the adrenal gland since it is more directly involved in the production of epinephrine.
Answer:
adrenal
explanation: got it right on edge
put simple a b or c its not that hard
The correct answer choice from the statement above is:
Homeostasis is the the maintenance of a steady internal environment of an organisms.
Option B is the correct answer
What are hormones?Hormones are chemical messengers or substances which are produced by the endocrine glands and released to the sites of action where they are needed.
Below are few examples of some hormones which also help in homeostasis:
AdrenalineAldosteroneAntidiuretic hormoneAdrenocorticotropic hormoneOxytocinInsulinGlucagonTestosteroneOestrogenSo therefore, the correct answer choice from the statement above is:
Homeostasis is the the maintenance of a steady internal environment of an organisms
Complete question:
Which of the following statements best describes homeostasis. Simply put a b or c its not that hard
a. Homeostasis is regulation of external environment
b. Homeostasis is the maintenance of a steady international environment of an organisms
c. Homeostasis is movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
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Both adult and embryonic stem cells have the potential to be used for medical treatment. Evaluate the potential use of adult and embryonic stem cells as medical treatments. You must contain a justified conclusion
Stem cells are the body's raw materials — cells from which all other cells with specialized functions are generated. Under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells called daughter cells.Research carried out with the use of these cells has demonstrated their effectiveness in the treatment of various diseases, such as leukemia, heart disease and hematological diseases. Embryonic stem cells, in turn, have the ability to form any tissue in the body.
How are embryonic stem cells used?Stem cells have the ability to differentiate and self-renew. For this reason, they can be used in the treatment of degenerative diseases. Stem cells stand out for their ability to transform into different cell types, that is, they are cells with a great capacity for differentiation.
What diseases could be treated with the use of Embryonic Stem Cells?Diseases that can be treated with stem cellsleukemias. Leukemia is a generic term used to describe the “cancer” of leukocytes, the white blood cells. Thalassemias. Neuroblastoma.Primary immunodeficiencies.Sideroblastic anemia. Metabolic diseases. Sickle cell anemia.With this information, we can conclude that Scientists are also working on ways to develop stem cells from other cells, using genetic “reprogramming” techniques.
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Both adult and embryonic stem cells have the potential to be used for medical treatment because adult stem cells are also found in a undifferentiated state.
What are embryonic stem cells?The embryonic stem cells are specific non-specialized cells found in the blastocyst (embryo state) which can be stimulated to generate virtually any tissue.
Moreover, adult stem cells are nonspecialized cells found after the postnatal period which can be stimulated to divide and produce any tissue (similarly to embryonic stem cells).
In conclusion, both adult and embryonic stem cells have the potential to be used for medical treatment because adult stem cells are also found in a undifferentiated state.
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Decomposition in pools, ponds, and lakes takes place mostly in the _______ zone. a. pelagic b. littoral c. benthic d. all of the above please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Answer:
C. Benthic
Explanation:
The benthic zone is the region at the lowest part of water ...
How does your calculated value compare to your measured cell potential for cell 6?
Formula for the Overall Cell Potential is ; E0cell=E0red−E0oxid
E0cell = Measured cell potential
E0red = Sum of the reduction potential ( cathode )
E0oxid = Oxidation potential ( anode )
Calculated value of cell potential can differ from the Measured Cell potential because of the cell impurities, value differences during the calibration of voltage or concentration.
Measured potential of a cell is normally less than the ideal or nominal volts. This is because of the voltage which is specified for the ideal conditions for a new unused cell. The conditions mention temperature, atmospheric pressure, presume sound unaffected condition of electrode plates as also pure electrolytes etc.
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If a radioactive isotope undergoes beta decay, the daughter isotope that is produced has an atomic number that:_____.
If a radioactive isotope undergoes beta decay, the daughter isotope that is produced has an atomic number that is increased by one.
Beta decay is the radioactive disintegration results in a change of one positive charge without any change in the mass number of the atomic nuclei.
An unstable nucleus produces an energetic electron and an antineutrino during electron emission, which is also known as negative beta decay, and a neutron inside the nucleus changes into a proton inside the product nucleus. As a result, negative beta decay produces a daughter nucleus whose mass number is the same but whose atomic number is one higher than that of its parent.
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_____ waves have a long wavelength and do not possess sufficient energy to kill bacterial cells, while _____ waves have a short wavelength and can be used to sterilize a surface
Infrared waves have a long wavelength and do not possess sufficient energy to kill bacterial cells, while UV waves have a short wavelength and can be used to sterilize a surface.
When ultraviolet light, also known as ultraviolet germicidal irradiation, is released at its most effective wavelength of 253.7 nanometers (nm), it has the greatest ability to kill germs and render microbes inert (UVGI). When transmitted at wavelengths different than those recommended, germicidal efficacy declines. To efficiently deliver the appropriate amount of UV radiation for the desired application, high-quality UV sterilization lamps are crucial.By altering cell DNA, UV radiation sterilization efficiently renders bacteria inert. Because DNA is necessary for cell reproduction, damage to the DNA's structural integrity prevents cells from multiplying and causing disease. The cell absorbs the UV rays, resulting in the formation of pyrimidine dimers. Instead of bonding across the double helix, this causes two nearby thymine or cytosine bases to interact with one another.learn more about UV here: https://brainly.com/question/1377878
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The whiplash often accompanying car accidents poses a special danger to the sacral spine.
a. true
b. false
The sacral spine is particularly at risk due to the whiplash that frequently follows vehicle accidents. The following claim is false.
Whiplash injury:
Injuries to the brainstem that do not directly affect the head or neck are also classified as whiplash injuries and are not just limited to neck injuries. The most frequent complaints related to whiplash injuries include cervical discomfort, headaches, and scapulodynia. Dizziness and vertigo are also noted in 27% -52% of the patients. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) is utilized in otoneurologic examinations to assess vertebrobasilar hemodynamics in patients who report dizziness and vertigo. According to reports, cervical manipulation causes cerebral and cerebellum ischemia and infarction due to vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency (VBI). Using MRA, doctors investigated the relationship between vertigo or dizziness and the difference between the vertebral arteries on the right and left sides following whiplash injury.Therefore the questioned statement is false.
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When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and:______.
When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and stored fats.
What are proteins?Proteins can simply be defined as those itrogenous organic substances which have large molecules composed of one or more long chains of amino acids
It is one of the major classes of food or source of food energy (4 kcal/gram) abundant in animal-derived foods (ie: meat) and some vegetables, such as legumes.
So therefore, when protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and stores as fats
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Urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the external environment by the?
The tube that carries urine from urinary bladder to the outside environment by urethra.
What is the chemical composition of urine?Urine is a fluid released from the kidney to remove waste products of the bloodstream.
Human urine is yellowish in color as various chemical components are present.
The primary components are water which is 91% - 96%, urea, creatinine, uric acid, enzymes, carbohydrates, hormones, fatty acids, pigments, and mucins, and other inorganic ions
The pH ranges from 5.5 to 7 and specific gravity ranges from 1.003 to 1.035.
Hence, urethra is the correct answer
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A point mutation that does not result in a change to the amino acid coded for is said to be a _______ mutation. a. spontaneous c. selective b. synonymous d. stabilizing
A point mutation that does not result in a change to the amino acid coded for is said to be a synonymous mutation.
What is synonymous mutation?
A synonymous mutation is a change in a protein's amino acid sequence that occurs in the DNA sequence that codes for that amino acid but does not affect the encoded amino acid. These alterations typically take place in the third position of a codon because of the genetic code's redundancy (several codons encode the same amino acid).
For instance, the codes for glycine are GGT, GGA, GGC, and GGG. The identical amino acid will be integrated into the protein sequence with any modification in the codon's third position (for example, A is replaced by G).
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The arrangement of homeotic genes along chromosomes of vertebrate and invertebrate animals corresponds to the expression pattern of the genes along the?
The arrangement of homeotic genes along chromosomes of vertebrate and invertebrate animals corresponds to the expression pattern of the genes along the anterior-posterior axis of the developing embryo.
What are homeotic genes?Homeotic genes are a group of body pattern forming genes which control the development along the anterior- posterior axis of the developing embryo.These encode transcription factors which control and specify the genes involved in body patterning. These provide identity to the segments during embryo formation.Genes located in the 5’ end act on posterior side whereas the genes on 3’ end act on anterior region.Homeotic genes are evolutionary conserved and control body specification, patterning and differentiation.The loss of function of any of the gene changes the body pattern and affects the development.Learn more about homeotic genes here:
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The choice of system used to transport nutrients is based primarily on whether the nutrients are:________
The choice of system used to transport nutrients is based primarily on whether the nutrients are: FAT OR WATER SOLUBLE.
Depending on how soluble they are, nutrients can be categorized. Most dissolve in water because they are water-soluble. The fat-soluble vitamins, on the other hand, behave like oil and do not dissolve in water.Because they are soluble in organic solvents and are absorbed and transported similarly to fats, vitamins A, D, E, and K are referred to as fat-soluble vitamins.The B vitamins — folate, thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, vitamin B6, and vitamin B12 — and vitamin C are the nine water-soluble vitamins. A clinical illness caused by a deficiency in one of these water-soluble vitamins has the potential to cause serious morbidity and mortality.learn more about nutrients here: https://brainly.com/question/8070307
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The __________ is the visible aspect of characteristics passed from parent to offspring
The traits is the visible aspect of characteristics passed from parent to offspring.
Through the process of heredity, organisms inherit traits from their parents. Traits are the name for these features. Every person is distinct because they each possess a special set of characteristics. Inherited qualities are those that a parent passes on to its offspring during the fertilization process. The way the genetic features are interpreted is what causes the distinction between heredity and inheritance. The term "heredity" refers to the genetic traits that parents pass on to their children; it is frequently referred to as "genetics."Through their genes, parents transmit features or qualities to their offspring, such as eye color and blood type. There are several illnesses and medical disorders that can be genetically handed down. One trait can occasionally take in numerous versions. For instance, blood type can be A, B, AB or O.learn more about traits here: https://brainly.com/question/930507
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Hormone released by the duodenum in response to acids and lipids in the duodenum.
Cholecystokinin is perspired by cells of the upper little intestine. Its secretion is stimulated by the introduction of hydrochloric acid, amino acids, or fatty acids into the stomach or duodenum.
What is Cholecystokinin?Cholecystokinin is a hormone produced in your little intestine. It recreates a fundamental role in digestive function. When fats and proteins enter your small intestine, cholecystokinin activates your gallbladder and pancreas to contract.The most recognized positions of this hormone are in digestion and appetite. It improves digestion by delaying the emptying of food from the stomach and promoting the production of bile in the liver as well as its departure from the gall bladder.CCK peptides stimulate pancreatic enzyme secretion and growth, gallbladder compaction, gut motility, and satiety, and deter acid secretion from the stomach. Moreover, they are major neurotransmitters in the brainiac and the periphery.To learn more Cholecystokinin, refer to:
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Question mode multiple choice question what type of cells does the ground meristem make?
Answer:
Parenchyma Cells, I believe
URGENT! What results would you expect to see if exercise does not increase bone mass?
When exercise does not increase bone mass, it has been observed that the risk of bone fractures increases due to osteoporosis.
What are the benefits of exercise to bone mass and density?
Bone mass refers to the mass of the bones in a living organism as a result of the deposition of minerals within the bone.
An increase in bone mass is directly related to the strength of the bone.
Strong bones have high bone masses whereas weak bone have low bone mass.
Physical activity have been shown to improve bone mass by increase the mass of deposited minerals in the bone.
Exercise such as walking, running, jogging, and other forms of exercise have been shown to improve bone mass and hence, the strength of bones.
However, when exercise does not increase bone mass, osteoporosis is observed which results in bone fracture.
In conclusion, the strength of a bone is directly related to the bone mass which is directly related to the mass of minerals deposited within them.
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In the theory of plate tectonics, how should you picture the earth?
A. The plastic atmosphere floats on the lithosphere.
B. The continents are held in place by the solid core below and never move.
C. The lithosphere (crust) is like pieces of a puzzle, slowly moving causing the continents
to move.
D. The mantle is like pieces of a puzzle, slowly moving.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
As shown in the picture I attached to my answer, we can see all of the tectonic plates, which make up the lithosphere. The pieces do move very slightly every year.
In the theory of plate tectonics, the lithosphere is like pieces of a puzzle, slowly moving causing the continents to move.
What is tectonic plate ?A tectonic plate can be defined as a massive, irregular slab like structure composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere.
The size of tectonic plates can vary that ranges from few hundred to thousands, for example the Pacific and Antarctic Plates are among the largest.
The thickness of tectonic plates are varies , ranging from 15 km for young oceanic lithosphere to about 200 km and it is more ancient continental lithosphere.
The Continental crust is made up of granitic rocks relatively lightweight minerals such as quartz and feldspar, the oceanic crust is composed of basaltic rocks which are denser and heavier.
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A farmer produces a variety of apple with deep pink flesh by selectively crossbreeding apples with pinkish hues. This is an example of?
A farmer produces a variety of apple with deep pink flesh by selectively crossbreeding apples with pinkish hues. This is an example of artificial selection. Thus, option D is correct.
What is artificial selection?
The process where human choose an organisms with desirable phenotypic trait for breeding purpose. If that trait have some genetic variance can be selected and organism will evolve with new traits.
However in case of natural selection where natural factor is manipulated and evolution of the organism in response to this selective agent occurred.
Artificial selection can be applied to virus to human to increase the productive value of an organism.
Hence, option D is correct.
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Your question was incomplete. The probable question was
A farmer produces a variety of apple with deep pink flesh by selectively crossbreeding apples with pinkish hues. This is an example of
A) convergent evolution
B) natural selection
C) artificial mutation
D) artificial selection
E) inheritance of acquired characteristics
What activated carriers, and how many of each, are produced during the citric acid cycle?
NADH, GTP, FADH2 are the activated carriers which are produced during the citric acid cycle.
What are activated carriers?A small molecule that has a chemical group attached to it through a high-energy linkage and can donate energy or the chemical group in a variety of chemical processes.
How these activated carriers are produced in Kreb's cycle?The inner mitochondrial membrane's electron-transport chain receives high-energy electron contributions from NADH and FADH2. The activated nucleoside triphosphate GTP, which is closely similar to ATP, is also produced by the citric acid cycle.Electrons from the combustion of carbs, lipids, and other nutrients during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle are used to power the flow of ATP production. These "high-energy" electrons are produced by activated carriers produced during these two types of catabolic events, with the citric acid cycle operating in the mitochondrial matrix producing the majority of these activated carriers. The oxidation of molecules taken from food is finished by the citric acid cycle. The activated carriers NADH and FADH2 store some of the energy produced by this oxidation in the form of high-energy electrons. The inner mitochondrial membrane's electron-transport chain can then receive electrons from these two activated carriers.Learn more about activated carriers here:
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The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. c5b c5a c3b c1 factor b
The correct answer is c3b.
The intrinsic C3 thioester bond of the alternative pathway (AP) is progressively hydrolyzed spontaneously by diverse proteins, lipids, and carbohydrate structures on microbes and other external surfaces [12–14], and this further activates the AP [1, 15]. A blue line pointing to C3 denotes the fluid-phase C3b promoting assembly of AP C3 convertase as the proposed mechanism for the reaction of properdin with a target on the foreign surface [27]. Thick red lines signify amplification mechanisms: Factor H regulates and inhibits the tick-over reaction, a gradual spontaneous activation involving C3(H2O) reacting with factor B. Properdin also promotes self-amplification in the other loop by stabilizing the C3bBb complex.
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An axosomatic synapse occurs between the axon terminals of one neuron and the ________ of a proximal neuron.
Research in neuroeconomics has linked activity in the _____ with a reflexive decision system and activity in the _____ with reflective decision system
Research in neuroeconomics has linked activity in the nucleus accumbens and ventromedial prefrontal cortex with a reflexive decision system and activity in the medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex with reflective decision system.
The nucleus accumbens is considered as the neural interface between motivation and action, playing a key role on feeding, sexual, reward, stress-related, drug self-administration behaviors, etc. The nucleus accumbens is made up of an 'electrophysiological coincidence detector' or shell serially connected to a 'motor sequencer' or core, both supporting the role of the nucleus accumbens as a limbic-motor interface.
The ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) is a part of the prefrontal cortex in the mammalian brain. It is an integrative hub for emotional, sensory, social, memory, and self-related information processing. Situated in the medial portion of the prefrontal cortex, the highly interconnected vmPFC serves as a region for binding together the large-scale networks that subserve emotional processing, decision-making, memory, self-perception, and social cognition in general.
The medial temporal lobe includes a system of anatomically related structures that are essential for declarative memory (conscious memory for facts and events). The system consists of the hippocampal region (CA fields, dentate gyrus, and subicular complex) and the adjacent perirhinal, entorhinal, and parahippocampal cortices.
The lateral prefrontal cortex is the cortex of the convexity of the frontal lobe rostral to motor and premotor cortices. Any sizable lesion of that cortex leads to some degree of apathy, a generalized loss of interest and attention on anything coming through the senses or in the mind of the patient.
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Although glycolysis produces four molecules of atp by substrate-level phosphorylation, the net gain of atp for the cell is two molecules. This is because?
Although glycolysis produces four molecules of atp by substrate-level phosphorylation, the net gain of atp for the cell is two molecules. This is because glycolysis is at first endergonic.
What is glycolysis?The metabolic process that turns glucose into pyruvic acid is known as glycolysis. The high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate and reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are created using the free energy released during this process. A series of ten enzyme-catalyzed processes make up glycolysis.The process by which glucose is broken down to provide energy is known as glycolysis. It generates two pyruvate molecules, ATP, NADH, and water. There is no need for oxygen throughout the process, which occurs in the cytoplasm of a cell. Both aerobic and anaerobic creatures experience it.The initial process in breaking down glucose to release energy for cellular metabolism is called glycolysis. An energy-consuming phase and an energy-releasing phase make up glycolysis.
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During dna replication, the enzyme dna polymerase adds new nucleotides to the ______ end of the sugar in the growing strand
During dna replication, the enzyme dna polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3' end of the sugar in the growing strand
The middle ear communicates with the:_______
a) nasopharynx through the auditory meatus.
b) pharyngotympanic tube auricle.
c) bony labyrinth.
d) membranous labyrinth
The middle ear communicates with the: nasopharynx through the auditory meatus.
Since it creates the most pronounced anatomic opening between the two compartments in both animals and humans, it has long been considered that the round window membrane serves as the main pathway of communication between the middle ear and perilymph.The middle ear interacts with the pharynx, adjusts to changes in pressure outside, and transfers vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.The small passageway, also known as the auditory tube or eustachian tube, that runs from the middle ear to the nasopharynx. Pressure is equalized on both sides of the tympanic membrane via the tube (eardrum). The inner ear membrane in the fenestra ovalis receives sound waves from the incus through the stapes.learn more about middle ear here: https://brainly.com/question/2861613
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Atoms in triglycerides could be used in the synthesis of dna. which metabolic intermediate and pathway will function as crossover points between triglycerides and dna?
Atoms in triglycerides could be used in the synthesis of DNA. Acetyl-CoA is the metabolic intermediate involved in Citric acid cycle pathway which functions as crossover points between triglycerides and DNA.
The Citric acid cycle also known as Krebs cycle or TCA cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle) involves a series of enzyme-catalyzed reactions which occur in the mitochondrial matrix. In this pathway, acetyl-CoA is oxidized to form carbon dioxide and the coenzymes are reduced, which generate ATP in the electron transport chain.
Acetyl-CoA (acetyl coenzyme A) takes part in many biochemical reactions linked with protein, carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. Its main role is to deliver the acetyl group to the Citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) to be oxidized for energy production.
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Detective controls strengthen the system against incidents by reducing or eliminating certain vulnerabilities.
a. true
b. false
True. Detective controls strengthen the system against incidents by reducing or eliminating certain vulnerabilities.
What about detective control?Detective controls are intended to identify mistakes or issues after the transaction has taken place. Detective controls are crucial because they give proof that preventative controls are working as planned and give an opportunity to find abnormalities after the fact.A detective control is made to find issues after they have already happened. After an issue is identified, management can take action to reduce the likelihood that it will happen again in the future, typically by changing the underlying process.Designed to identify mistakes and anomalies that have already happened and to ensure that they are corrected as soon as possible. These safeguards are frequently expensive but essential operating expenses.Audits, performance evaluations, and reconciliations. Preventive and investigative efforts are the two main categories of control.Learn more about detective control here:
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