Illustrated below is a model summarizing Cas9/sgRNA-DNA interactions. Shown below it is the start of a coding region within the first exon of a gene. The bracketed codon indicates the correct reading frame of this gene. The lower strand of the gene is used as the template during the transcription of mRNA from this gene. You wish to use CRISPR/Cas9 to make a double-stranded DNA break within the open reading frame (ORF) of this gene.

Suppose you use 5' AGG as the PAM sequence, which sequence could you use for your sgRNA?

...CTGAGATCTCATGTACTAGTCCGTCATTACTGTACTTCTCTTGACAGGCTGTGTCGTGGAATATCTAAGAGCT-3'
...GACTCTAGAGTACATGATCAGGCAGTAATGACATGAAGAGAACTGTCCGACACAGCACCTTATAGATTCTCGA-5'

a) 5' CTGTGTCGTGGAATATCTAA 3'
b) 3' GACACAGCACCTTATAGATT 5'
c) 5' ATTACTGTACTTCTCTTGAC 3'
d) 3' TAATGACATGAAGAGAACTG 5'

Answers

Answer 1

Correct sgRNA sequence for making a double-stranded DNA break within the ORF of this gene using CRISPR/Cas9 is 3' GACACAGCACCTTATAGATT 5'.

The correct option is B .

To design the sgRNA sequence for targeting the open reading frame (ORF) of the gene using CRISPR/Cas9, we need to identify the appropriate sequence that complements the PAM sequence (5' AGG) and is located adjacent to the target site.

In this case, we want to find the sequence that pairs with the PAM sequence (5' AGG) in the lower strand of the gene. The sgRNA sequence should be complementary to the target DNA sequence adjacent to the PAM sequence.

Comparing the given options with the lower strand of the gene sequence, we can see that option (b) 3' GACACAGCACCTTATAGATT 5' is the correct sgRNA sequence. This sequence pairs with the PAM sequence (5' AGG) and is located adjacent to the target site within the open reading frame (ORF) of the gene.

Hence , B is the correct option

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Related Questions

cells in seeds are able to withstand damage from extreme desiccation due to _________.

Answers

Cells in seeds are able to withstand damage from extreme desiccation due to a process called desiccation tolerance.

Desiccation refers to the extreme drying out of an organism or its tissues, which can be detrimental to most living cells. However, seeds have evolved unique mechanisms to protect their cells from desiccation damage during periods of dormancy or when exposed to harsh environmental conditions.

One of the key factors that contribute to desiccation tolerance in seeds is the accumulation of specific protective substances, such as sugars (e.g., trehalose and sucrose) and proteins (e.g., late embryogenesis abundant proteins or LEA proteins). These substances help stabilize cellular structures and protect them from dehydration-induced damage.

Additionally, during the process of seed development, the cells undergo changes in their metabolism and gene expression, which enable them to enter a state of quiescence or dormancy. This dormancy state allows the cells to withstand extreme desiccation by slowing down their metabolic activities and entering a reversible state of suspended animation.

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Which one of the following is an autotrophic (a) lichens (b) algae. (c) fungus. (b) cuscuta​

Answers

Algae is an autotrophic. Option B is correct.

Algae are organisms that can perform photosynthesis, which means they can produce their own food using sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide. They are capable of converting light energy into chemical energy through the process of photosynthesis. This makes them autotrophic, as they can synthesize organic compounds and sustain themselves without relying on external food sources.

Lichens are the symbiotic association between the fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium. Although algae are involved in lichen formations, lichens themselves are not autotrophic as a whole. The fungus component of lichens obtains nutrients from the surrounding environment, while the algal or cyanobacterial component can contribute to the photosynthetic activity within the lichen structure.

Fungi are the heterotrophic organisms. They obtain their nutrients by breaking down organic matter or by forming mutualistic associations with other organisms. Fungi cannot perform photosynthesis and therefore rely on external food sources, making them heterotrophic.

Cuscuta, commonly termed as dodder, is the parasitic plant. It does not possess the ability to perform photosynthesis and relies entirely on other host plants for its nutrients. Therefore, it is also heterotrophic.

Hence, B. is the correct option.

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what organelle destroys harmful substances or worn out cell parts

Answers

The organelle responsible for destroying harmful substances or worn out cell parts is the lysosome. Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles found in eukaryotic cells.

They contain a variety of enzymes, known as hydrolytic enzymes, that are capable of breaking down various macromolecules, including proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids.

Lysosomes function as the cell's recycling centers and are involved in the process of autophagy, which is the degradation and recycling of cellular components.

They fuse with vesicles containing damaged or unwanted materials, such as old organelles or foreign particles, and break them down into smaller molecules that can be used by the cell or eliminated from the cell.

The ability of lysosomes to degrade and remove harmful substances or cellular waste contributes to cellular homeostasis and overall cell health.

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Which of the following represents an EXCEPTION to the law of independent assortment?
O linkage. (Two genes that are linked on the same chromosome do not assort independently.)
O homozygous recessive
O heterozygous
O anaphase I

Answers

Linkage is an exception to the law of independent assortment.

The law of independent assortment states that alleles of different genes segregate independently of each other during the formation of gametes. This means that the inheritance of one gene does not influence the inheritance of another gene. However, the exception to this law is linkage, which occurs when two genes are located close to each other on the same chromosome.

When genes are closely linked on the same chromosome, they tend to be inherited together more often than expected by chance. This is because the physical proximity of the genes on the chromosome makes them less likely to undergo independent assortment during meiosis. Instead, they tend to be inherited as a unit, resulting in a deviation from the expected ratio of allele combinations.

Homozygous recessive and heterozygous genotypes, as well as anaphase I, are not exceptions to the law of independent assortment. Homozygous recessive and heterozygous genotypes represent different combinations of alleles, while anaphase I is a stage of meiosis where homologous chromosomes separate.

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regarding adaptive immunity, what is meant by a clone of cells?

Answers

In the context of adaptive immunity, a clone of cells refers to a population of immune cells that are derived from a single precursor cell, also known as a progenitor cell or a clone.

During an immune response, such as encountering a specific pathogen or antigen, a small number of immune cells recognize and bind to the antigen. These cells then undergo clonal expansion, where they multiply and give rise to a large population of identical cells, all equipped with the ability to recognize and respond to the same antigen.

This process ensures a robust and coordinated immune response against the specific pathogen or antigen. The clone of cells produced during clonal expansion includes both B cells, which produce antibodies, and T cells, which orchestrate various immune responses.

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A.under what conditions can the rock type shale be
considered
I) cap rock
II) Source rock
B. briefly describe the possible factors that could
least to oil seeps
c. what is thermal maturation

Answers

I) Shale can be considered a cap rock under certain conditions where it forms a impermeable layer that seals and prevents the upward migration of fluids, such as oil or gas, from underlying reservoir rocks.

II) Shale can also be considered a source rock under specific conditions where it contains organic matter that can generate and release hydrocarbons through thermal maturation.

Several factors can contribute to oil seeps, including geological and hydrogeological conditions. These factors include the presence of a petroleum source rock, a reservoir rock with sufficient permeability and porosity, and a cap rock that acts as an effective seal to trap hydrocarbons underground. Additionally, structural features like faults or fractures can provide pathways for oil to migrate to the surface. The presence of natural groundwater flow systems can also influence the movement of oil and facilitate seepage.

Thermal maturation refers to the process by which organic matter in sedimentary rocks, such as shale, undergoes chemical and physical changes due to increasing temperature over geological time. As the temperature increases with burial depth, the organic matter undergoes transformation, releasing hydrocarbons in the form of oil or gas. This process is crucial for the generation and accumulation of hydrocarbons in source rocks. The level of thermal maturation is often used to determine the maturity and potential of a source rock to generate hydrocarbons. Different stages of thermal maturation, ranging from low to high, can indicate the level of oil or gas generation and the type of hydrocarbons produced.

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Part A

In this experiment, you will place the container in the freezer. What do you think will happen?
30points✌✌✌

Answers

If you put a container of water in the freezer and the container is completely full and sturdy enough to prevent any expansion, the water will not remain liquid. Water expands when it freezes, and this expansion creates a significant amount of force.

How to explain the information

In such a situation, the water will exert pressure on the walls of the container as it freezes. If the container is strong enough to withstand this pressure, it may remain intact, but the expansion of the water will cause the container to deform or rupture eventually.

However, it's worth noting that it is highly unlikely to find a container that is completely rigid and strong enough to prevent any expansion of water. The force exerted by freezing water is quite powerful, and it can typically overcome the strength of most containers.

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What happens if you put a container of water in the freezer, and the container is so full and so sturdy that the water has no space to expand into as it becomes ice? Does the water remain liquid?

The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called:

a) Coronary circulation

b) Pulmonary circulation

c) Hepatic portal circulation

d) Cerebral circulation

Answers

Option C: The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called hepatic portal circulation.

A specialised circulatory system known as hepatic portal circulation carries blood from the stomach, intestines, and spleen straight to the liver. This unique route is important for the efficient processing and metabolic regulation of nutrients absorbed from the digestive system.

Once in the liver, the blood undergoes extensive metabolic processing and detoxification. The liver plays a crucial role in regulating nutrient levels, removing toxins, and synthesizing important molecules. It acts as a filter, processing the absorbed nutrients, breaking down harmful substances, and storing or releasing glucose as needed.

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5. A genetic engineering company claims that it has developed a genetically modified tomato plant that yields on average more tomatoes than other varieties. A farmer wants to test the claim on a small scale before committing to a fullscale planting. Ten genetically modified tomato plants are grown from seeds along with ten other tomato plants. At the season's end, the resulting yields in pound are recorded as below. Test, at the 5% level of significance, whether the data provide sufficient evidence to conclude that the mean yield of the genetically modified variety is greater than that for the standard variety.

Answers

The data does provide sufficient evidence to conclude that the mean yield of the genetically modified variety is greater than that for the standard variety.

To test the claim made by the genetic engineering company, a farmer conducted an experiment where ten genetically modified tomato plants were grown alongside ten other tomato plants. The yields in pounds were recorded at the end of the season. In order to determine if the genetically modified variety indeed yields more tomatoes on average, a hypothesis test can be conducted.

The null hypothesis (H0) states that there is no significant difference in the mean yield between the genetically modified variety and the standard variety. The alternative hypothesis (Ha) suggests that the mean yield of the genetically modified variety is greater than that of the standard variety.

Using the given data, a one-sample t-test can be performed at a significance level of 5%. By comparing the mean yield of the genetically modified variety to the mean yield of the standard variety, we can determine if the difference is statistically significant.

If the calculated p-value from the t-test is less than 0.05, we can reject the null hypothesis and conclude that there is sufficient evidence to support the claim that the genetically modified variety yields more tomatoes on average.

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select the correct medical term for the process of measuring oxygen in the blood.

Answers

The correct medical term for the process of measuring oxygen in the blood is "pulse oximetry."

Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive medical procedure used to measure the oxygen saturation level in the blood. It is a commonly used method in clinical settings to assess a patient's respiratory status and monitor oxygen levels.

During pulse oximetry, a device called a pulse oximeter is used. The pulse oximeter consists of a sensor that is usually attached to a person's fingertip, earlobe, or other suitable sites. The sensor emits light, typically red and infrared light, which is passed through the skin and blood vessels. The sensor then detects the amount of light absorbed by oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Based on the light absorption patterns, the pulse oximeter calculates the oxygen saturation level, expressed as a percentage.

Pulse oximetry is a quick, painless, and non-invasive method for assessing oxygen levels in the blood. It is commonly used in various healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, emergency rooms, and during surgeries or anesthesia administration.

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the classical symphony developed from what other classical genre?

Answers

The classical symphony developed from the Baroque genre, known as the Italian opera overture.

The Italian opera overture, consisting of three movements, was the primary model for the classical symphony.

Classical music refers to the music produced in Europe between 1750 and 1820. The three main genres of classical music are the sonata, the symphony, and the concerto. Symphony was an instrumental composition that, by the late 18th century, had evolved into a four-movement form.

The classical symphony developed from the Baroque genre, known as the Italian opera overture. The Italian opera overture, consisting of three movements, was the primary model for the classical symphony. The opera overture and the sinfonia of the opera were the most popular musical genres in the early 18th century. The sinfonia was written in three movements, like the opera overture, and it was used to mark the beginning or end of an opera. It soon evolved into a genre of its own and was referred to as the “symphony” in Vienna after the middle of the 18th century.

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if you want to see a dinosaur, it would be best to set the controls of your time machine for the __________.

Answers

If you want to see a dinosaur, it would be best to set the controls of your time machine for the Mesozoic Era.

The Mesozoic Era, also known as the Age of Dinosaurs, is the geological time period that spanned from approximately 252 to 66 million years ago. It is during this era that dinosaurs dominated the Earth and exhibited their greatest diversity.

By setting the time machine to the Mesozoic Era, one would have the highest probability of encountering dinosaurs. This era is further divided into three periods: the Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous. Each period saw the presence of different dinosaur species and ecosystems.

It's important to note that the exact time and location within the Mesozoic Era would determine the specific types of dinosaurs one might encounter. Different regions and time periods hosted distinct dinosaur populations with varying sizes, shapes, and behaviors.

Therefore, to increase the likelihood of observing dinosaurs, setting the time machine for the Mesozoic Era would be the most suitable choice.

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which lipid abnormality is most closely linked to heart disease?

Answers

The lipid abnormality most closely linked to heart disease is high levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, often referred to as "bad" cholesterol.

LDL cholesterol is a type of lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from the liver to various tissues in the body. When LDL cholesterol levels are high, it can lead to the accumulation of cholesterol in the arterial walls, causing atherosclerosis, which is a major risk factor for heart disease.

Excess LDL cholesterol can enter the arterial walls and promote the formation of fatty plaques. These plaques can narrow and harden the arteries, impeding blood flow to the heart muscle. If a plaque ruptures, it can lead to the formation of a blood clot, which can further block the blood flow and result in a heart attack.

Conversely, high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, often referred to as "good" cholesterol, are associated with a reduced risk of heart disease. HDL cholesterol helps remove excess cholesterol from the arteries and transports it back to the liver for processing.

Monitoring and managing LDL cholesterol levels through a healthy lifestyle, including a balanced diet, regular exercise, and medication when necessary, can significantly reduce the risk of heart disease.

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Which of the following species is the least closely related to the rest? A) Killer whale B) Blue whale C) Dorudon D) Hippo E) Ambulocetus F) Pakicetus

Answers

The species that is the least closely related to the rest is the Dorudon.

Dorudon is a genus of extinct whales that lived during the Eocene epoch around 41.3 to 33.9 million years ago. The animal has long jaws with many sharp teeth and a body similar to that of modern dolphins. It is an early representative of the toothed whale species, a group of marine mammals that incorporates killer whales, blue whales, and dolphins.

On the other hand, Hippo, Killer whale, Blue whale, Ambulocetus, and Pakicetus are all part of the Cetartiodactyla group of mammals. The Cetartiodactyla group comprises of cetaceans (whales, dolphins, and porpoises), hippos, pigs, camels, llamas, deer, giraffes, and cattle, which are all members of the order Artiodactyla.

In conclusion, based on the above information, the species that is least closely related to the rest of the species among the given options is the Dorudon. Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) Dorudon.

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Animal diversity is due to variations in the expression of ancient genes in addition to the evolution of new and different genes. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is usually met in populations in changing environments.

Answers

The first part of the statement is correct and the second part of the statement is incorrect.

The first part of the statement, "Animal diversity is due to variations in the expression of ancient genes in addition to the evolution of new and different genes," is generally correct. Animal diversity is indeed influenced by both the variations in the expression of existing genes and the evolution of new genes. These variations contribute to the phenotypic and genetic diversity observed in different animal species.

However, the second part of the statement, "The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is usually met in populations in changing environments," is incorrect. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes an idealized scenario in which the allele frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation, assuming certain conditions are met (such as no mutation, migration, genetic drift, or natural selection). In reality, most populations are subject to various factors that can cause changes in allele frequencies, such as natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow. Changing environments often lead to changes in selection pressures, which can result in shifts in allele frequencies and deviation from the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Therefore, the second part of the statement is inaccurate, as the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not usually met in populations in changing environments.

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from the steps listed for phagocytosis, which would be the third to occur?

Answers

Fusion of vesicles with lysosomes would be the third to occur.

Phagocytosis is the process by which specialized cells called phagocytes engulf and ingest foreign particles, such as pathogens or cellular debris. The process involves several sequential steps.

The first step is chemotaxis, where the phagocyte is attracted to the site of infection or the presence of foreign particles. Once the phagocyte reaches the target, the second step, known as recognition, takes place. In this step, the phagocyte recognizes the foreign particle through various mechanisms, such as binding of receptors on the phagocyte to molecules on the surface of the particle.

After recognition, the third step occurs, which is the attachment of the phagocyte to the target particle. This attachment is facilitated by interactions between receptors on the phagocyte and molecules on the surface of the particle. The attachment ensures a firm grip of the phagocyte on the target, preparing for the subsequent steps.

Following attachment, the fourth step, engulfment, takes place. In this step, the phagocyte surrounds the target particle with its membrane, forming a phagosome. The phagosome then fuses with lysosomes, leading to the formation of a phagolysosome, where the final step of digestion and destruction of the ingested particle occurs.

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what is the body's ability to resist invaders and the diseases they cause?

Answers

The body's ability to resist invaders and the diseases they cause is called its immunity.

Animals, especially humans have a complex yet very much-needed organ system called the immune system. The immune system not only keeps invaders or any foreign substances away from the body but remembers their molecular markers to anticipate a future attack.

The immune system consists of organs and tissues such as Bone marrow, Tonsils, Lymph nodes, Spleen, mucous membranes, etc. They produce immune cells whose main job is to protect the body from harm.

The system can be broadly classified as innate and adaptive immune system based on the functions that cells belonging to each group do.

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a gradual degenerative condition affecting the underside of the patella is called:

Answers

A gradual degenerative condition affecting the underside of the patella is called patellar chondromalacia or patellofemoral syndrome.

Patellar chondromalacia, also known as patellofemoral syndrome, is a condition characterized by the softening and degeneration of the cartilage on the underside of the patella (kneecap). It is a common knee problem, especially among athletes and individuals who engage in activities that involve repetitive knee movements.

The patella normally glides smoothly along the femoral groove during knee movements. However, in patellar chondromalacia, there is an imbalance or misalignment between the patella and the femoral groove, leading to increased pressure and friction on the cartilage.

This increased pressure and friction can cause the cartilage to wear down, resulting in pain, inflammation, and sometimes a roughening or irregularity of the patellar surface. Symptoms of patellar chondromalacia typically include pain behind or around the kneecap, especially during activities that involve bending the knee or prolonged sitting.

Treatment for patellar chondromalacia often involves a combination of rest, physical therapy, strengthening exercises, orthotics, and pain management techniques to alleviate symptoms and improve the alignment and function of the patella.

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ghrelin a hormone that influences appetite is secreted by the

Answers

Ghrelin, a hormone that influences appetite, is primarily secreted by the stomach. The cells in the gastric mucosa, specifically the X/A-like cells located in the fundus and body of the stomach, are responsible for producing and releasing ghrelin.

These cells are also found in smaller quantities in other organs, such as the small intestine, pancreas, and hypothalamus. Ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating hunger and satiety.

It stimulates appetite and promotes food intake by acting on the hypothalamus, which is the region of the brain responsible for controlling hunger and regulating energy balance. Ghrelin increases feelings of hunger, enhances food cravings, and stimulates the release of growth hormone.

The secretion of ghrelin is influenced by various factors, including fasting, meal anticipation, stress, and certain physiological conditions. Its levels typically increase before meals and decrease after eating, reflecting its involvement in regulating the body's energy balance.

In conclusion, ghrelin, the hormone that influences appetite, is primarily secreted by the stomach, particularly by the X/A-like cells in the gastric mucosa. Its role in stimulating hunger and regulating food intake highlights its significance in the complex mechanisms governing appetite control and energy balance.

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self future letter as first year student in biomedical
engineering.

Answers

As a first-year student in biomedical engineering, I would write a self-future letter to reflect on my goals and aspirations for the future.

Writing a self-future letter as a first-year student in biomedical engineering can be a valuable exercise for setting goals, envisioning the future, and creating a roadmap for personal and academic growth. In the letter, I would address myself as a future version of who I aspire to become, describing the achievements, skills, and experiences I hope to gain throughout my journey in biomedical engineering.

The purpose of this letter is to provide guidance and motivation, reminding myself of the reasons I chose this field and the impact I hope to make in the healthcare industry. It can serve as a reminder of the passion and dedication needed to excel in biomedical engineering and can help maintain focus during challenging times.

By outlining specific goals, such as pursuing research opportunities, engaging in extracurricular activities, and developing technical skills, the self-future letter acts as a tool for self-reflection and accountability. It allows me to envision a successful future and serves as a constant reminder of the steps I need to take to make that vision a reality.

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what are the cells that form skeletal connective tissue called

Answers

The cells that form skeletal connective tissue are called osteoblasts.

What is skeletal connective tissue?

Skeletal connective tissue is a connective tissue found in bone, cartilage, and ligaments. Osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts are the three types of bone cells that form skeletal connective tissue. These cells work together to create and maintain a healthy skeletal system in the body.

What are osteoblasts?

Osteoblasts are cells that make up skeletal connective tissue. Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that secrete collagen and other proteins that help build and maintain the bone matrix. They're also in charge of transforming cartilage into bone by depositing calcium salts into the bone matrix. Osteoblasts are in charge of the formation of new bone tissue, and they play an important role in bone development, growth, and repair.

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12 1 how can blood diseases be identified lab answers

Answers

Blood diseases can be identified by laboratory tests. Mentioned below are a few blood tests that help identify blood diseases:

Complete Blood Count (CBC):

CBC or complete blood count is a blood test that measures different parameters of the blood such as red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. CBC is performed to detect blood diseases like anemia, leukemia, and infections. A CBC test gives information about the following:

RBC count

Hemoglobin

WBC count

Platelet count

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

Red cell distribution width (RDW)

Blood Smear:

Blood smear is a microscopic examination of the blood that allows the doctor to look at the blood cells. Blood smear helps in detecting the following blood diseases:

Anemia

Leukemia

Bacterial infections

Viral infections

Malaria

Hematocrit:

Hematocrit is a blood test that measures the volume of red blood cells in the blood. Hematocrit test helps detect blood diseases like anemia, polycythemia, and dehydration.

Serum iron, TIBC, and ferritin:

Serum iron, TIBC (total iron-binding capacity), and ferritin tests are blood tests that measure the amount of iron in the blood. These tests are done to detect iron-deficiency anemia and hemochromatosis.

Blood protein electrophoresis:

Blood protein electrophoresis is a blood test that measures the levels of different proteins in the blood. Blood protein electrophoresis is performed to detect blood disorders like multiple myeloma, amyloidosis, and Waldenström macroglobulinemia.

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body parts that share a common function but not structure

Answers

One example of body parts that share a common function but have different structures is the fins of fish and the flippers of marine mammals.

Both fins and flippers aid in locomotion and maneuverability in their respective aquatic environments. Fish fins are composed of bony rays or soft tissues supported by skeletal structures, allowing fish to swim and change direction.

On the other hand, marine mammal flippers, such as those of dolphins or seals, are modified limbs with a flexible, paddle-like shape, enabling them to propel through water.

Despite their distinct structures, both fins and flippers serve the common function of assisting in aquatic movement and navigation.

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Complete question :

Which body parts share a common function but do not have a common structure?    

tantalum from african coltan is used primarily for the manufacture of ________.

Answers

Tantalum from African coltan is used primarily for the manufacture of electronic components and devices.

Coltan, a combination of columbite and tantalite, is found in abundance in several African countries, including the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC). Tantalum, one of the key elements extracted from coltan, possesses unique properties that make it highly desirable in the electronics industry.

Tantalum capacitors, which are compact, lightweight, and have high capacitance values, are the most significant application of tantalum in electronics. These capacitors are widely used in mobile phones, laptops, tablets, gaming consoles, and various other electronic devices. Tantalum's exceptional thermal stability and reliability make it a preferred choice for capacitors in critical applications like aerospace and defense systems.

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The complete question is:

Fill in the blanks:

Tantalum from African coltan is used primarily for the manufacture of ________.

cerclage is a procedure to remove polyps from the uterus

Answers

The statement "Cerclage is a procedure to remove polyps from the uterus" is false.

Cerclage is a surgical procedure that involves stitching a band or suture around the cervix (the lower part of the uterus) to reinforce it and prevent premature opening or dilation during pregnancy. It is usually performed in cases where there is a risk of miscarriage or premature birth due to cervical incompetence.

Polypectomy, on the other hand, is the procedure used to remove polyps from the uterus.

Polyps are abnormal growths that can develop in the lining of the uterus, and if they cause symptoms or are suspected to be cancerous, they may be surgically removed through a polypectomy procedure.

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Complete question :

Cerclage is a procedure to remove polyps from the uterus. T/F

the autonomic and somatic nervous systems can be distinguished by whether or not we are

Answers

The autonomic and somatic nervous systems can be distinguished by whether or not we have voluntary control over their functions.

The autonomic and somatic nervous systems are two divisions of the peripheral nervous system that control different aspects of bodily functions. They can be distinguished based on the level of voluntary control we have over their activities.

The somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary control of skeletal muscle movements. It allows us to consciously initiate and control movements, such as walking, talking, or waving our hands. This system is under our conscious control, and we can make decisions to start or stop specific movements.

On the other hand, the autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary processes that occur automatically and without conscious effort. It controls functions such as heart rate, digestion, breathing, and glandular secretion. The autonomic nervous system is further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, which have antagonistic effects on various bodily functions.

Unlike the somatic system, the autonomic system operates largely without conscious control. Its actions are reflexive and are regulated by the brain and spinal cord in response to internal and external stimuli.

In summary, the distinction between the autonomic and somatic nervous systems lies in the level of voluntary control we have over their functions. The somatic system is under conscious control, allowing voluntary movements, while the autonomic system regulates involuntary processes and operates largely without conscious effort.

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How many different sequences of eight bases of DNA can you make?

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In DNA, there are four different bases: adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T). Each base can be placed at any position in a sequence of eight bases.

Therefore, the number of different sequences of eight bases of DNA can be calculated by raising the number of options (four) to the power of the length of the sequence (eight). So, the number of different sequences of eight bases of DNA is 4^8, which equals 65,536.

The number of different sequences of eight bases of DNA can be determined by considering the number of options (four nucleotides: adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine) for each position in the sequence.

For each position, there are four possible nucleotides that can be chosen. Since there are eight positions in the sequence, we can calculate the total number of different sequences by multiplying the number of options for each position together. Mathematically, this can be represented ,  where 4 is the number of options (nucleotides) and 8 is the length of the sequence. Raising 4 to the power of 8 gives us 65,536. This means that there are 65,536 different possible sequences of eight bases of DNA when considering the four nucleotides as options for each position.

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What is the difference between a prokaryote and a eukaryote? A. the need for nutrients. B. plasma membranes. C. membrane-bound organelles. D. cell walls.

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The difference between a prokaryote and an eukaryote is C. membrane-bound organelles.

The presence of membrane-bound organelles is a key feature that distinguishes eukaryotes from prokaryotes. Eukaryotic cells have various membrane-bound organelles, such as the nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and others. These organelles are enclosed by membranes that separate their internal compartments from the cytoplasm.

In contrast, prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles. They typically have a simpler internal structure with no distinct nucleus or membrane-bound organelles. The genetic material in prokaryotes is usually found in a single circular chromosome located in the nucleoid region, which is not surrounded by a nuclear membrane.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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The ______ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.

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The pain threshold is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.

The pain threshold is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived. It refers to the minimum intensity of a painful stimulus that an individual can detect or feel. The pain threshold varies from person to person and can be influenced by various factors, such as individual pain sensitivity, psychological factors, and prior experiences with pain.When a painful stimulus is applied to the body, such as heat, pressure, or injury, it triggers sensory receptors called nociceptors. These nociceptors transmit signals to the brain, which then processes the information and interprets it as pain. The pain threshold determines the point at which these nociceptor signals are strong enough for the brain to perceive them as pain.Individuals with a lower pain threshold tend to perceive pain at lower intensities of stimulation, while those with a higher pain threshold require a more intense stimulus to feel pain. It is important to note that pain perception is subjective and can also be influenced by psychological and contextual factors.

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Suppose a cDNA has the sequence CTTAGGA. What is the corresponding mRNA sequence?
A. GAATCCT
B. GAAUCCU
C. AGGATTC
D. UCCUAAG

Answers

The corresponding mRNA sequence to the cDNA "CTTAGGA" is GAATCCT, option A is correct.

In mRNA, the DNA sequence is transcribed with complementary bases. The cDNA sequence "CTTAGGA" contains the bases C, T, T, A, G, G, and A. To obtain the mRNA sequence, the following conversions are made: C in cDNA is replaced with G in mRNA, and T in cDNA is replaced with A in mRNA. Applying these conversions to each nucleotide in the cDNA sequence yields the mRNA sequence GAATCCT. This sequence represents the RNA transcript synthesized from the cDNA template during the process of transcription.

The process of transcription converts the information encoded in DNA into mRNA. During transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase synthesizes an mRNA molecule by using one strand of the DNA as a template. In this case, the cDNA sequence "CTTAGGA" represents the complementary sequence of the template DNA strand, option A is correct.

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