Management focuses on strategic planning, decision-making, and overseeing the overall direction of the organization, operations are concerned with the execution of tasks and processes that directly contribute to the production or delivery of goods and services
Management: Management refers to the activities and responsibilities involved in planning, organizing, coordinating, and controlling resources to achieve the organization's goals and objectives.
In a business setting, management focuses on overseeing the overall direction and decision-making processes to ensure the efficient utilization of resources. Managers set strategic goals, develop plans, allocate resources, make decisions, and monitor progress.
Operations: Operations, on the other hand, primarily deal with the day-to-day activities involved in producing goods or delivering services.
It is concerned with the execution of tasks and processes that directly contribute to the creation and delivery of products or services.
Operations encompass activities such as procurement, production, quality control, inventory management, logistics, and customer service. The primary objective of operations is to ensure the smooth and efficient functioning of the business's core activities.
Differences between Management and Operations:
1. Focus: Management focuses on the big picture, setting goals, formulating strategies, and making high-level decisions to guide the organization. Operations, on the other hand, are concerned with the execution of those plans and strategies, ensuring that tasks are completed effectively and efficiently.
2. Scope: Management has a broader scope, encompassing various functions such as strategic planning, resource allocation, organizational development, and monitoring performance. Operations, in contrast, have a narrower scope, concentrating on the specific activities directly involved in production or service delivery.
3. Time Horizon: Management typically operates with a long-term perspective, setting goals and plans for the future. Operations, however, are more focused on the immediate and short-term activities required to meet daily operational targets.
4. Decision-Making: Management involves high-level decision-making, considering factors such as market analysis, competitive positioning, financial considerations, and long-term sustainability. Operations, on the other hand, involve day-to-day decision-making related to production schedules, inventory management, quality control, and customer service.
In summary, while management focuses on strategic planning, decision-making, and overseeing the overall direction of the organization, operations are concerned with the execution of tasks and processes that directly contribute to the production or delivery of goods and services.
Both management and operations are essential components of a business environment, with their distinct roles and responsibilities contributing to the overall success and efficiency of the organization.
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Jason Stedman is the director of finance for Burton Manufacturing, a U.S.-based manufacturer of handheld computer systems for inventory management. Burton's system combines a low-cost active tag that is attached to inventory items (the tag emits an extremely low-grade radio frequency) with custom designed hardware and software that tracks the low-grade emissions for inventory control. Burton has completed the sale of an inventory management system to a British firm, Pegg Metropolitan (UK), for a total payment of £1,900,000.
The exchange rates shown as:
student submitted image, transcription available below
were available to Burton on the dates shown, corresponding to the events of this specific export sale. Assume each month is 30 days.
a. What will be the amount of foreign exchange gain (loss) upon settlement?
b. If Jason hedges the exposure with a forward contract, what will be the net foreign exchange gain (loss) on settlement?
c. If Jason hedges the exposure with a forward contract purchased on the date the contract is signed, what will be the net foreign exchange gain (loss) on settlement?
a). Therefore, the amount of foreign exchange gain upon settlement is $76,000. b). the settlement amount will remain the same as agreed upon in the forward contract. c). settlement will still be zero.
(a) To calculate the amount of foreign exchange gain or loss upon settlement, we need to determine the difference between the exchange rate at the time of the sale and the exchange rate at the time of settlement.
Given:
Sale Amount: £1,900,000
Exchange Rate at the Time of Sale: £1 = $1.51
Exchange Rate at the Time of Settlement: £1 = $1.47
Foreign Exchange Gain/Loss = (Settlement Amount - Sale Amount) in USD
First, let's convert the sale amount to USD:
Sale Amount in USD = £1,900,000 * $1.51
= $2,869,000
Now we can calculate the foreign exchange gain/loss:
Foreign Exchange Gain/Loss = ($2,869,000 - $2,793,000)
= $76,000
Therefore, the amount of foreign exchange gain upon settlement is $76,000.
(b) If Jason hedges the exposure with a forward contract, the net foreign exchange gain/loss on settlement will be zero. This is because a forward contract allows Burton Manufacturing to lock in a specific exchange rate at the time of signing the contract.
Regardless of any subsequent changes in the exchange rate, the settlement amount will remain the same as agreed upon in the forward contract.
(c) If Jason hedges the exposure with a forward contract purchased on the date the contract is signed, the net foreign exchange gain/loss on settlement will still be zero.
The forward contract locks in the exchange rate at the time of signing, which ensures that the settlement amount remains the same regardless of any subsequent changes in the exchange rate. Therefore, there will be no foreign exchange gain or loss upon settlement.
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T/F: money market accounts, certificates of deposit, bonds and commercial paper are all forms of shortterm investment vehicles.
True. Money market accounts, certificates of deposit, bonds, and commercial paper are all forms of short-term investment vehicles. These investments typically have maturities of less than one year, and they are considered to be relatively safe and liquid.
Money market accounts are offered by banks and credit unions, and they typically pay higher interest rates than savings accounts. Money market accounts are FDIC or NCUA insured, up to $250,000.
Certificates of deposit (CDs) are also offered by banks and credit unions, and they typically offer higher interest rates than money market accounts. CDs have a fixed maturity date, and you may face penalties if you withdraw your money early.
Bonds are debt securities issued by governments, corporations, or other organizations. Bonds typically have maturities of several years, but there are also short-term bonds that mature in less than one year.
Commercial paper is a type of unsecured debt issued by corporations. Commercial paper typically has maturities of less than 270 days.
All of these investments are considered to be relatively safe, as they are backed by the issuing entity. However, they also offer lower returns than longer-term investments. As a result, short-term investments are typically used for goals that are one year or less away, such as an upcoming vacation or a down payment on a house.
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When people feel like they have more money than time, certain services flourish. Imagine setting up a butler service called Jeeves. Jeeves would see to all the logistics details in your life that consume more time than you wish to give them. Jeeves wall take care of your information needs, from making doctors' appointments or playdates for the kids, to stylist appointments for you, to helping you do banking, paying bills, and even coordinating and evaluating your investments, if you wish. If you were stinkin' rich, you'd also have a chef and a driver. While strictly speaking, these domains fall outside the usual butler responsibilities, in the Jeeves service, the butlers fill in with whatever household and related duties the customer wishes to be done, and a payment package is chosen accordingly. Thus, your Jeeves can drive your kids to school and pick up groceries to have a 7 p.m. dinner ready for the family, if those are the addons you desire (and for which you're willing to pay).
Create a marketing plan to introduce Jeeves to your local community. Gather any secondary data that you can in order to substantiate the business case. Make clear notes throughout the plan where you would seek additional primary marketing research to provide guidance about those components of the plan. Divide the market and its segments, and characterize the segments you would target.
By understanding the local community's needs and preferences, Jeeves can position itself as the trusted solution for those seeking to outsource time-consuming tasks.
1. Executive Summary:
Jeeves is a premium butler service designed to assist individuals with their logistical and household needs, providing them with more free time. This marketing plan outlines the strategies to introduce Jeeves to the local community.
2. Market Analysis:
a. Secondary Data:
Gather secondary data on the local area demographics, income levels, and lifestyle preferences to determine the target market's size and characteristics.
b. Primary Research:
Conduct primary research to understand potential customers' specific needs, preferences, and willingness to pay for premium butler services. Use surveys, focus groups, and interviews to gather insights into their desired services, pricing expectations, and satisfaction levels.
3. Target Market Segments:
Divide the market into segments based on income levels, lifestyle factors, and preferences. Characterize the following segments for targeting:
a. High-Net-Worth Individuals (HNWIs):
Characteristics: Affluent individuals with significant disposable income. Needs: Seek personalized, time-saving services to manage their busy lives. Additional primary research: Understand their specific pain points, preferred services, and budget allocation for assistance.
b. Dual-Income Families: Characteristics: Families with both parents working and limited time for household management. Needs: Assistance in handling various tasks to maintain work-life balance. Additional primary research: Identify their most time-consuming responsibilities and evaluate their willingness to delegate tasks.
4. Marketing Strategies:
a. Positioning:
Position Jeeves as the premier butler service that offers highly personalized, efficient, and reliable assistance, catering to the individual needs of clients.
b. Branding and Messaging:
Develop a strong brand identity that reflects luxury, professionalism, and trustworthiness. Craft messaging that emphasizes the value of time saved and the convenience provided by Jeeves.
c. Pricing:
Determine pricing packages based on the range of services offered. Use primary research to understand customers' price sensitivity and willingness to pay for various add-on services.
d. Promotion:
Online Presence: Create a user-friendly website highlighting services, testimonials, and the Jeeves brand. Utilize social media platforms to engage with potential customers. Influencer Marketing: Collaborate with local influencers or celebrities to promote Jeeves through endorsements and content creation.
e. Additional Primary Research:
Conduct primary research to gather insights on customer awareness, perceptions, and preferences regarding premium butler services. Understand their preferred communication channels and evaluate the effectiveness of promotional efforts.
5. Conclusion:
Introducing Jeeves as a premium butler service requires thorough market analysis, targeted segmentation, and effective marketing strategies. Ongoing primary research will be essential to refine and adapt the marketing plan to maximize its effectiveness in capturing the local market.
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Over one six month period, the bank recorded, on a weekly basis, errors per thousand items processed in all types of collection transactions. The resulting 26 numbers were as follows: 0,2,0,17,2,4,0,2,1,0,0,5,6,5,15,5,10,5,2,2,0,2,0,0,0,1. The Bank Administration Institute reports that the average error rate for such transactions is 1.5%. Now let's control the process using a a p-chart. What is the average weekly proportion of errors (show 4 decimal place)?
The average weekly proportion of errors, calculated by dividing the total number of errors by the total number of items processed, is 0.109.
To calculate the average weekly proportion of errors, we need to divide the total number of errors by the total number of items processed over the 26-week period.
Total number of errors = sum of all numbers in the given list = 0 + 2 + 0 + 17 + 2 + 4 + 0 + 2 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 5 + 6 + 5 + 15 + 5 + 10 + 5 + 2 + 2 + 0 + 2 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 109
Total number of items processed = 1000 (since the error rate is recorded per thousand items processed)
Average weekly proportion of errors = Total number of errors / Total number of items processed
Average weekly proportion of errors = 109 / 1000 = 0.109
Therefore, the average weekly proportion of errors is 0.109 (rounded to 4 decimal places).
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True/False
-A new auditor may never accept beginning inventory balances.
-In contrast to the audit of plant assets, curtent assets have a grèater signifieance to net income and the year-end cut-off.
When a new auditor accepts a client, they may not assume responsibility for the prior period's financial statements. However, if the auditor's work in the prior period was performed and documented by another auditor, the auditor may accept the inventory balance. They would inspect the auditor's work, inquire about the work, and evaluate whether the inventory balance is fairly stated. This examination is intended to determine if there is a need for an adjustment or if the inventory balance can be agreed upon.
Therefore, the first statement that says "A new auditor may never accept beginning inventory balances" is False.
must focus on various factors when auditing the financial statements, and the significance of items to net income and the year-end cut-off is one of them. Because plant assets (such as buildings and machinery) are usually bought and kept for several years, they are typically not a significant part of net income for a single year. Current assets, on the other hand, such as cash, accounts receivable, and inventory, are more likely to be significant to net income and the year-end cut-off. This is because these items are directly connected to revenue, expenses, and the financial statement's presentation, respectively.
Therefore the second statement says "In contrast to the audit of plant assets, current assets have a greater significance to net income and the year-end cut-off" is True.
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Fred's Pizza business provides you the following Accounting GAAP francial information for this year's business income tax refu Income Statement.
1 Revenue $100,000
2. Meals and Entertainment $10,000
3. Supply Expenses $2,000
4 Depreciation Expenses $5,000
Assets
Furniture (Class 8,20%), UCC was $10,000, Purchase this year was $10,000 and disposed of furniture for proceeds of $10.000 and had an original cost of $5.000.
Building (Class 1,4%) UCC was $100,000
The TOTAL maximum CCA for this year is?
The TOTAL maximum CCA for this year is $4,000 + $1,500 = $5,500. Therefore, the correct option is D.
The solution to the problem is as follows:
Given Accounting GAAP financial information for Fred's Pizza business for this year's business income tax return
Income Statement.1 Revenue = $100,0002.
Meals and Entertainment = $10,0003. Supply Expenses = $2,0004.
Depreciation Expenses = $5,000
To calculate CCA, we need the UCC, and the half-year rule has to be applied to new purchases during the year.
UCC of Building (Class 1, 4%) = $100,000
UCC of Furniture (Class 8, 20%) = $10,000
Disposal Proceeds of Furniture = $10,000
Original Cost of Furniture = $5,000
Purchase of Furniture during the year = $10,000
New UCC for Furniture is: 10,000 - 5,000 + 10,000 / 2 = 7,500
New Total UCC:100,000 + 7,500 = 107,500
Maximum CCA calculation for Building is:
UCC * Rate = Maximum CCA
100,000 * 0.04 = 4,000
Maximum CCA calculation for Furniture is:
UCC * Rate = Maximum CCA7,500 * 0.20
= 1,500
The TOTAL maximum CCA for this year is $4,000 + $1,500 = $5,500.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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many of ________ works are so similar to degas's style that it is almost as if he was instructed to use degas's paintings as a template.
The statement implies that the works of an artist are closely resembling Degas's style, to the extent that it seems like they were instructed to use Degas's paintings as templates.
Full Answer: Many of the artist's/painter's works are so similar to Degas's style that it is almost as if he/she was instructed to use Degas's paintings as templates. The statement suggests a strong resemblance between the artist's/painter's works and Degas's artistic style. The similarity could be in terms of composition, brushwork, subject matter, or other elements that define Degas's distinctive style. The use of the word "template" implies a significant influence or inspiration from Degas's works. However, it is important to note that without specific examples or context, it is challenging to provide a more detailed analysis of the situation or the artist/painter in question.
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The traditional promotion mix for a firm consists of the:
A) strategic mix of price, product, place and advertising.
B) advertising, personal selling, public relations, and sales promotion used to reach a target market.
C) marketing intermediaries employed by the firm to create a supply value chain.
D) various types of advertising media the firm selects to reach each specific target market.
The correct answer is B) advertising, personal selling, public relations, and sales promotion used to reach a target market. The traditional promotion mix for a firm typically includes these elements to effectively reach and communicate with the intended target market.
To accomplish a certain marketing objective, a promotional mix combines marketing strategies such as direct marketing, sales, public relations, and advertising. Usually, the promotional mix is just a small component of the overall marketing mix. You could decide to employ a couple of the strategies or that a mix of them all might work best for your campaign. A promotional mix is necessary for a successful marketing plan.
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The traditional promotion mix for a firm includes four elements: advertising, personal selling, public relations, and sales promotion. Each has a specific role in marketing a product or service to the target market.
Explanation:The traditional promotion mix for a firm typically consists of four elements: advertising, personal selling, public relations, and sales promotion. To elaborate, advertising can take many forms, including print, TV, radio, and online ads, all with the purpose of spreading awareness about a product or service. Personal selling involves direct contact between a sales representative and a potential customer, usually through activities such as sales calls or face-to-face meetings. Public relations involves using media and communications to maintain and manage a positive image and relationship with the public. Lastly, sales promotion includes activities such as discounts, special offers, and giveaways to incentivize sales temporarily.
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The following information is available for Swifty's Hot Dogs;
Actual production 11.620 packages
Budgeted production 12.500 packages
Standard direct labor hours 1.5 direct labor hours per package
Actual direct labor hours 18.499
Standard variable overhead rate $3 per direct labor hour
Actual variable overhead costs $47.047
Calculate the variable overhead spending and efficiency variances. (Round answers to O decimal places, e.g. 125. If variance is zero, select "Not Applicable" and enter O for the amounts.)
The variable overhead spending and efficiency variances for Swifty's Hot Dogs can be calculated as follows:
The variable overhead spending variance is calculated by finding the difference between the actual variable overhead costs and the budgeted variable overhead costs. In this case, the actual variable overhead costs are $47,047 and the budgeted variable overhead costs can be calculated by multiplying the actual direct labor hours (18.499) by the standard variable overhead rate ($3 per direct labor hour). Therefore, the budgeted variable overhead costs are 18.499 * $3 = $55,497. The variable overhead spending variance is the difference between the actual and budgeted variable overhead costs: $47,047 - $55,497 = -$8,450.
The variable overhead efficiency variance is calculated by finding the difference between the standard hours allowed for the actual production and the actual hours worked, multiplied by the standard variable overhead rate. The standard hours allowed for the actual production can be calculated by multiplying the budgeted production (12,500 packages) by the standard direct labor hours per package (1.5 direct labor hours per package). Therefore, the standard hours allowed for the actual production are 12,500 * 1.5 = 18,750 direct labor hours. The variable overhead efficiency variance is the difference between the standard hours allowed and the actual hours worked: 18,750 - 18.499 = 251 hours. Multiplying this by the standard variable overhead rate ($3 per direct labor hour) gives the variable overhead efficiency variance: 251 * $3 = $753.
In summary, the variable overhead spending variance is -$8,450 and the variable overhead efficiency variance is $753.
The variable overhead spending variance is negative because the actual variable overhead costs are lower than the budgeted variable overhead costs. This indicates that the company has saved costs in the variable overhead category. On the other hand, the variable overhead efficiency variance is positive, indicating that the actual hours worked were slightly less than the standard hours allowed for the actual production. This suggests that the company's labor efficiency was slightly better than expected. Both variances provide insights into the company's performance in managing variable overhead costs and labor efficiency.
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Which of the following is not an action of a fiscal expansion?
an increase in interest rates to stimulate consumption.
an increase in government spending on public infrastructure.
an increase of unemployment benefits to eligible job seekers.
an increase in subsidy payment for small-sized businesses.
tax cuts for low income earners.
Fiscal expansion refers to the implementation of government policies aimed at increasing aggregate demand and stimulating economic growth. An increase in interest rates to stimulate consumption is not an action of fiscal expansion.
Fiscal expansion typically involves increasing government spending, reducing taxes, or providing economic incentives. However, an increase in interest rates is a monetary policy tool used by central banks to control inflation and manage the overall economy. It falls under the realm of monetary policy rather than fiscal policy.
The other options listed—increasing government spending on public infrastructure, increasing unemployment benefits, increasing subsidy payments for small-sized businesses, and tax cuts for low-income earners—are examples of actions associated with fiscal expansion. These measures aim to boost government spending, support individuals and businesses, and provide economic stimulus during periods of economic downturn or recession.
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Our course materials define performance management as the process of creating a work environment in which people can perform: a) with the right training b) to the best of their abilities c) as required d) when the proper incentives are in place Cumulative trauma disorders are also known as strain injuries of the muscles, nerves, tendons, ligaments, joints and spinal discs caused by repeated stresses and strains. True or False: One of the goals of a strategic compensation folicy is to enable the organization to attract the right talent. a) occupational investigation b) occupational injury c) non-occupational injury d) none of the above The three regimes of employment law include: a) Human Right legislation b) Employment Equity legislation c) Statutory Employment regulations d) Occupational Health and Safety legisiation is a guarantee of accrued benefits to participants at retirement age, regardless of employment status at that time. The phrase ___ shop describes a company where employees automatically join the bargaining unit as a condition of employment. Irue or Faise: Anotunion employer must have a valid reason to dismiss an employee. MBO is an acronym for a performance review method focused on leading people using well defined goals and True or False: Workers' compensation invarance provides benefits to lemplovees who iniuse themselves whether at work or at horse.
1. Performance management involves creating a work environment where individuals can perform with the right training, to the best of their abilities, as required, and with proper incentives in place. 2. Cumulative trauma disorders refer to strain injuries caused by repeated stresses and strains on muscles, nerves, tendons, ligaments, joints, and spinal discs. 3. True. One of the goals of a strategic compensation policy is to attract the right talent to the organization. 4. Occupational illnesses are abnormal conditions or disorders caused by workplace environmental factors, excluding those resulting from occupational investigation, occupational injury, or non-occupational injury. 5. The three regimes of employment law include Human Rights legislation, Employment Equity legislation, and Statutory Employment regulations. 6. Vesting is a guarantee of accrued benefits to participants at retirement age, regardless of their employment status at that time. 7. The phrase "closed shop" describes a company where employees automatically join the bargaining unit as a condition of employment. 8. True. A non-union employer must have a valid reason to dismiss an employee. 9. MBO stands for Management by Objectives, a performance review method focused on leading people using well-defined goals and objectives. 10. False. Workers' compensation insurance provides benefits to employees who injure themselves while at work, but not while at home.
1. Performance management encompasses creating an environment that enables employees to perform their work effectively. This involves providing the right training to enhance skills, allowing individuals to perform to the best of their abilities, ensuring they meet job requirements, and offering proper incentives to motivate and reward performance.
2. Cumulative trauma disorders, also known as strain injuries, occur due to repeated stresses and strains on various body parts. These disorders affect muscles, nerves, tendons, ligaments, joints, and spinal discs. They are often caused by repetitive motions, overexertion, or poor ergonomics in the workplace.
3. True. A strategic compensation policy aims to attract and retain talented employees. By offering competitive and attractive compensation packages, organizations can position themselves as desirable employers, enabling them to attract individuals with the right skills and qualifications.
4. Occupational illnesses are health conditions caused by workplace environmental factors. However, they exclude illnesses resulting from occupational investigation (such as medical examinations), occupational injury (such as accidents), or non-occupational injury (injuries occurring outside the workplace).
5. The three regimes of employment law mentioned include Human Rights legislation, which protects against discrimination; Employment Equity legislation, which promotes equal opportunities; and Statutory Employment regulations, which govern various aspects of employment, such as wages, hours, and working conditions.
6. Vesting refers to a provision in retirement benefit plans that guarantees participants their accrued benefits upon reaching retirement age, regardless of their employment status at that time. This means that individuals who have vested in their retirement benefits are entitled to receive them even if they have left the company.
7. The term "closed shop" describes a company where employees are required to join the bargaining unit as a condition of employment. In a closed shop, individuals must be members of the union or become members shortly after being hired.
8. True. In a non-union setting, an employer must have a valid reason, such as poor performance or misconduct, to dismiss an employee. The dismissal should align with legal requirements and principles of fairness.
9. MBO, or Management by Objectives, is a performance review method that focuses on setting well-defined goals and objectives for employees. It involves a collaborative process between managers and employees to establish targets and measures of success, with the aim of aligning individual performance with organizational goals.
10. False. Workers' compensation insurance provides benefits to employees who sustain injuries while performing their work duties. It typically covers work-related injuries and illnesses, but not those that occur outside the scope of employment, such as injuries sustained at home.
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QUESTION ONE (20 Marks)
Explain the nature of financial risk in the public sector and identify, evaluate and recommend appropriate financial risk mitigation strategies, including those relating to public borrowing and financial market risks.
QUESTION TWO (20 Marks)
Describe the budgetary framework, budget cycle and budget processes, including the nature of performance measures, target setting, budget monitoring, budget feedback and control
QUESTION THREE (20 Marks)
Evaluate the PFM system using the Public Expenditure and Financial Accountability (PEFA) framework
QUESTION FOUR (20 Marks)
Describe the nature of public sector capital projects including the approval process, performance measures, and target setting, paying particular attention to public/private partnerships
QUESTION FIVE (20 Marks)
A summary of the general fund transactions for the city of Wautoma for the year ended December 31, 2020 is as follows:
a. A budget was approved, showing estimated revenues of $900,000, appropriations of $875,000, transfers-in of $27,000 from other funds, and required transfers of $20,000 to other funds.
b. The reserve for encumbrance at the end of 2019 was $15,000. Amounts encumbered in the prior period are included in appropriations for 2020.
c. Property taxes for $650,000 were levied. In past years, 1% of the property taxes levied proved uncollectible.
d. Encumbrances for $250,000 had not been liquidated by the end of 2019. invoices for all these items received in 2020 and totaled $24,000.
e. Collections from property taxes totaled $644,000 of which $20,000 represented collections on delinquent taxes. Delinquent taxes of $8,000 remain uncollected, on which a $3,000 allowance is carried. Remaining taxes receivable – current and taxes receivable – delinquent were converted into taxes receivable – delinquent and tax liens receivable, respectively.
f. Purchase orders totaling $700,000 were issue. Subsequently, invoices were received amounting to $685,000 for items estimated to cost $680,000. included were supplies for $10,000.
g. An ending inventory of supplies amounted to $2,000 for which the fund balance should be reserved.
h. A tract of land was purchased for $250,000. Payment was made from the general fund, in whose appropriations the item had been included. The amount had not been encumbered. The purchase was made with the intent of reselling the land to a suitable developer.
i. Wautoma received $300,000 as its part of federal revenue sharing programs. Grants-in-aid of $60,000 due from the state governments are recorded. None of the grants is expenditure driven.
j. Required transfers of $20,000 are made to other funds.
k. A $50,000 payment is made on a mortgage payable. The payment includes $21,000 of interest and a principal payment of $29,000.
l. An offer was received from a land developer who will pay $380,000 for the land acquired by the city in item (h). the sale is approved. The developer remits $100,0000 with a note due in 90 days, bearing 8% interest. Any gain is to be considered revenue.
m. Transfers received from other funds amount to $23,000.
n. The developer in item (l) remits payments for the note plus interest.
REQUIRE
1. Prepare journal entries of record the general fund transactions
2. Prepare closing entries for the general fund
The nature of financial risk in the public sector involves the potential for adverse financial outcomes due to various factors such as economic volatility, budget deficits and reliance on external financing.
What are appropriate financial risk mitigation strategies?To mitigate financial risks in the public sector, several strategies can be implemented. One key approach is to establish robust risk management frameworks that identify, assess, and monitor financial risks. This involves regularly analyzing economic indicators, fiscal policies, and market conditions to anticipate potential risks and take necessary actions.
Also, diversifying funding sources and maintaining a balanced debt portfolio can reduce the vulnerability of public entities to fluctuations in interest rates and credit markets. Governments can also consider implementing prudent borrowing practices such as conducting thorough credit assessments and negotiating favorable terms and conditions with lenders.
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The value of a 8 year lease that requires payments of $600 made at the beginning of every quarter is $16,500. What is the nominal interest rate compounded quarterly? % Round to two decimal places
The nominal interest rate compounded quarterly is 0.595% rounded to two decimal places.
Given that:
The value of an 8-year lease that requires payments of $600 made at the beginning of every quarter is $16,500.
Formula used: `
PV = PMT((1-(1+r)^-n)/r)`,
where
PV = present value
PMT = payment per period
r = rate per period
n = number of periods
Substituting the given values in the above formula, we get:
`16500 = 600((1-(1+r)^-32)/r)`
Simplifying the above equation, we get:
`1 - (1+r)^-32 = 16500 / (600r)`
Now, let us calculate the value of `(1+r)^-32`.
We have:`
(1+r)^-32 = 1 / (1+r)^32`
Substituting the above value in the earlier equation, we get:`
1 / (1+r)^32 = 16500 / (600r) + 1`
Multiplying both sides by `(1+r)^32`, we get:
`1 = (16500 / (600r) + 1)(1+r)^32`
Simplifying the above equation, we get:
`(1+r)^32 = 1.2875`
Now, taking the 32nd root of both sides, we get:
`1 + r = 1.00595`
Subtracting 1 from both sides, we get:
`r = 0.00595`
Answer: 0.595%.
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McKerley Corporation has preferred stock outstanding that will pay an annual dividend of $3.10 per share with the first dividend exactly 10 years from today. If the required return is 3.48 percent, what is the current price of the stock?
The current price of McKerley Corporation's preferred stock is $88.90. This is calculated by discounting the future dividend payments at the required return rate of 3.48 percent.
To calculate the current price of the preferred stock, we need to discount the future dividend payments to their present value. The annual dividend payment is $3.10 per share, and the first dividend will be paid exactly 10 years from today.
Using the formula for the present value of a perpetuity, we can calculate the current price as follows:
Price = Dividend / Required Return
Price = $3.10 / 0.0348
Price ≈ $88.90
Therefore, the current price of McKerley Corporation's preferred stock is approximately $88.90. This means that an investor would be willing to pay $88.90 today for each share of the preferred stock, given the expected future dividend payments and the required return of 3.48 percent.
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On 1 May 2019, Stewart acquired 70% of the equity interest in McDonald, a public limited company. The purchase consideration comprised cash of £94 million. The fair value of the identifiable net assets recognised by McDonald was £120 million excluding the patent below. The identifiable net assets of McDonald included a patent which had a fair value of £4 million. This had not been recognised in the financial statements of McDonald. The patent had a remaining useful term of four years to run at the acquisition date. The retained earnings of McDonald were £49 million and other components of equity were £3 million at the acquisition date. The remaining excess of the fair value of the net assets is due to an increase in the vlaue of land. The share capital of McDonald was £38 million at acquisition and there have been no shares issued since acquisition. The fair value of the non-controlling interest at acquisition was 46 million.
McDonald is located in a foreign country and also operates in the retail sector. The income of McDonald is demoninated in Kealeys. McDonald's sales price is determined by local supply and demand. McDonald pays 40% of its costs in dollars with the remainder being incurred locally and settled in Kealeys. McDonald's management has a considerable degree of autonomy in carrying out the operations of McDonald and is not reliant on the parent.
On 1 May 2019, Stewart acquired 70% of the equity interest in McDonald, a public limited company. The purchase consideration comprised cash of £94 million. The fair value of the identifiable net assets recognised by McDonald was £120 million excluding the patent below. The identifiable net assets of McDonald included a patent which had a fair value of £4 million. This had not been recognised in the financial statements of McDonald. The patent had a remaining useful term of four years to run at the acquisition date. The retained earnings of McDonald were £49 million and other components of equity were £3 million at the acquisition date. The remaining excess of the fair value of the net assets is due to an increase in the vlaue of land. The share capital of McDonald was £38 million at acquisition and there have been no shares issued since acquisition. The fair value of the non-controlling interest at acquisition was 46 million.
McDonald is located in a foreign country and also operates in the retail sector. The income of McDonald is demoninated in Kealeys. McDonald's sales price is determined by local supply and demand. McDonald pays 40% of its costs in dollars with the remainder being incurred locally and settled in Kealeys. McDonald's management has a considerable degree of autonomy in carrying out the operations of McDonald and is not reliant on the parent.
Based on the information provided, Stewart acquired 70% of the equity interest in McDonald on May 1, 2019, for a cash consideration of £94 million.
The identifiable net assets of McDonald, excluding the unrecognised patent, were valued at £120 million. The fair value of the patent was £4 million, which was not recognised in McDonald's financial statements. The patent had a remaining useful life of four years at the acquisition date.
The excess of the fair value of the net assets over the purchase consideration is mainly due to an increase in the value of land. McDonald's retained earnings were £49 million, and other components of equity were £3 million at the acquisition date. The share capital of McDonald was £38 million, and there were no additional shares issued since the acquisition.
It is also mentioned that McDonald operates in a foreign country, generates income in Kealeys, and pays 40% of its costs in dollars, with the remaining costs settled in Kealeys. McDonald's management has a high degree of autonomy and is not reliant on the parent company.
Overall, Stewart's acquisition of 70% equity interest in McDonald involved consideration of the identifiable net assets, the unrecognised patent, and the fair value of the non-controlling interest. The acquisition allows Stewart to gain control over McDonald's operations and contribute to its financial performance.
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Assume that you are the Chief Financial Officer of the mining company XYZ. Today is August 2017. By checking the books, you predict a cash shortage in December 2017. You know that you can use 90-day bank bills to solve the cashflow crisis.
You have the information on the 90 Day Bank Bills Futures as in below
Would you buy or sell 90-day bank bills to help the situation? (buy or sell)
At the same time, you fear that the price of the 90-day bills is going to fluctuate over the next three months. You have decided to use 90-day BAB futures to hedge this risk. In order to hedge, would you long or short 90-day BAB futures? (long or short)
Assume you need exactly 4 contracts to hedge your cash shortage. How much is the cash shortage? $ (keep 2 decimal points)
Let’s assume that in December 2017, the spot price for 90-day BAB is quoted at 97.50. Assume that you close-out your futures position. What is the gain (loss) on this contract? $ (keep 2 decimal points, add negative "-" sign for loss)
How much will you raise in the spot market by selling forty 90-day bank bills? $ (keep 2 decimal points)
(a) Buy. (b) Short. (c) Amount not provided. (d) Gain/Loss not determinable (e) Amount not provided.
(a) Buying 90-day bank bills would help solve the cashflow shortage in December 2017 by providing the necessary funds.
(b) Shorting 90-day BAB futures would hedge the risk of price fluctuations in 90-day bank bills over the next three months.
(c) The amount of the cash shortage is not provided in the information given.
(d) The gain or loss on the futures contract cannot be determined without the specific details of the transaction and contract terms.
(e) The amount raised in the spot market by selling forty 90-day bank bills is not provided in the given information.
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The master budget profit equals the flexible budget profit if
a. the actual revenue equals the master budget revenue
b. the actual costs equal the master budget costs
C. both the actual revenue and the actual costs equal the master budget revenues and the master budget costs respectively
d. the budgeted level of sales volume equals the actual level of sales volume e. everything is done efficiently
The master budget profit equals flexible budget profit if both actual revenue, actual costs need to equal master budget revenues, costs, , for master budget profit to equal flexible budget profit. The correct answer is option C.
The master budget is the initial budget prepared at the beginning of a period, based on estimates and projections. It includes budgeted revenues and costs, which serve as a benchmark for performance evaluation.
The flexible budget, on the other hand, is a revised budget that adjusts for actual activity levels achieved during the period. It allows for better performance evaluation by accounting for the actual sales volume and associated costs.
To compare the master budget profit with the flexible budget profit, both the actual revenue and the actual costs must align with the budgeted revenue and costs. This ensures that the comparisons are based on the same level of activity.
If the actual revenue differs from the master budget revenue or the actual costs differ from the master budget costs, the profit calculated from the flexible budget will also differ. Therefore, only when both the actual revenue and the actual costs match the master budget, the master budget profit will equal the flexible budget profit.
The correct answer is option C.
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For each of the following situations, identify the inventory method that you would use or, given the use of a particular method, state the strategy that you would follow to accomplish your goal:
Inventory costs are increasing. Your company uses weighted-average cost and is having an unexpectedly good year. It is near year-end, and you need to keep net income from increasing too much in order to save on income tax.
Suppliers of your inventory are threatening a labour strike, and it may be difficult for your company to obtain inventory. This situation could increase your income taxes.
Inventory costs are decreasing, and your company’s board of directors wants to minimize income taxes.
Inventory costs are increasing, and the company prefers to report high income. e. Inventory costs have been stable for several years, and you expect costs to remain stable for the indefinite future. (Give the reason for your choice of method.)
Here are the inventory methods that you would use for each of the following situations:Inventory costs are increasing. Your company uses weighted-average cost and is having an unexpectedly good year. It is near year-end, and you need to keep net income from increasing too much in order to save on income tax.
The inventory method to be used in this situation is LIFO (Last-in, First-out). This method allows you to match the high cost of goods sold (COGS) with the current rising inventory prices. Suppliers of your inventory are threatening a labor strike, and it may be difficult for your company to obtain inventory. This situation could increase your income taxes.Answer: The inventory method to be used in this situation is FIFO (First-in, First-out). This method allows you to use up your oldest and cheapest inventory first, so you are not forced to sell more expensive, newer inventory when the supply is limited. This can help you maintain lower net income taxes. Inventory costs are decreasing, and your company’s board of directors wants to minimize income taxes.
The inventory method to be used in this situation is LIFO (Last-in, First-out). This method allows you to match the high cost of goods sold (COGS) with the current decreasing inventory prices. This can help you minimize your net income and taxes. Inventory costs are increasing, and the company prefers to report high income.Answer: The inventory method to be used in this situation is FIFO (First-in, First-out). This method allows you to use up your oldest and cheapest inventory first, so you are not forced to sell more expensive, newer inventory when the supply is limited. This can help you report higher net income and taxes. Inventory costs have been stable for several years, and you expect costs to remain stable for the indefinite future.
The inventory method to be used in this situation is the average cost method. This method is used when the cost of inventory is relatively stable and is based on the average cost of inventory purchased during the year.
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Assume that there are two factors that price assets. Risk free rate is 3%. Factor 1 has an expected return of 7% and factor 2 has an expected return of 9%. Calculate the expected return for each asset with the following sensitivities using the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT):
(a) β1=1,β2=0.8;(5 marks )
(b) β1=1.2,β2=−0.50;(5marks)
(c) β1=0.8,β2=1.5. (5 marks)
(a) The expected return for the asset with β1=1 and β2=0.8 is 17.2%.
(b) The expected return for the asset with β1=1.2 and β2=-0.5 is 6.9%.
(c) The expected return for the asset with β1=0.8 and β2=1.5 is 22.1%.
Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) is an asset pricing model used to determine the expected returns of an asset based on its sensitivity to different risk factors.
(a) For asset with β1=1 and β2=0.8, the expected return can be calculated using the APT formula:
Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + (β1 * Expected Return of Factor 1) + (β2 * Expected Return of Factor 2)
Expected Return = 3% + (1 * 7%) + (0.8 * 9%)
Expected Return = 3% + 7% + 7.2%
Expected Return = 17.2%
(b) For asset with β1=1.2 and β2=-0.5, the expected return can be calculated using the APT formula:
Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + (β1 * Expected Return of Factor 1) + (β2 * Expected Return of Factor 2)
Expected Return = 3% + (1.2 * 7%) + (-0.5 * 9%)
Expected Return = 3% + 8.4% - 4.5%
Expected Return = 6.9%
(c) For asset with β1=0.8 and β2=1.5, the expected return can be calculated using the APT formula:
Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + (β1 * Expected Return of Factor 1) + (β2 * Expected Return of Factor 2)
Expected Return = 3% + (0.8 * 7%) + (1.5 * 9%)
Expected Return = 3% + 5.6% + 13.5%
Expected Return = 22.1%
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Presidio, Inc., produces one model of mountain bike. Partial information for the company follows:
Required:
1. Complete Presidio’s cost data table.
2. Calculate Presidio’s contribution margin ratio and its total contribution margin at each sales level indicated in the cost data table assuming the company sells each bike for $650.
3. Calculate net operating income (loss) at each of the sales levels assuming a sales price of $650.
Complete this question by entering your answers in the tabs below.
Required 1
Required 2
Required 3
Complete Presidio’s cost data table. (Round your Cost per Unit answers to 2 decimal places.)
Bikes Produced and Sold 730 Units 790 Units 1,070 Units
Total costs
Variable costs $182,500
Fixed costs per year
Total costs
Cost per unit
Variable cost per unit
Fixed cost per unit
Total cost per unit $534.00
To calculate the cost per unit, we divide the total costs (variable costs plus fixed costs) by the number of units produced and sold.
Bikes Produced and Sold | 730 Units | 790 Units | 1,070 Units
Total costs:
Variable costs: $182,500 | $197,750 | $267,250
Fixed costs per year: | $61,500 | $61,500 | $61,500
Total costs: $244,000 | $259,250 | $328,750
Cost per unit: $334.25 | $328.35 | $307.01
Variable cost per unit: $250.00 | $250.00 | $250.00
Fixed cost per unit: $84.25 | $78.35 | $57.01
Total cost per unit: $334.25 | $328.35 | $307.01
To calculate the cost per unit, we divide the total costs (variable costs plus fixed costs) by the number of units produced and sold. The variable cost per unit remains constant at $250, as it depends on the direct costs associated with producing each bike. The fixed cost per unit decreases as the number of units produced and sold increases since the fixed costs are spread over more units. The total cost per unit is the sum of the variable cost per unit and the fixed cost per unit.
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An investor invests 40% of his wealth in a risky asset with an expected rate of return of 15% and a variance of 4%, and 60% in a treasury bill (risk-free asset) that pays a rate of 6%. The correlation between two assets is zero. His portfolio's expected rate of return and standard deviation are 9,6% and 8% respectively. Use this information provided to calculate the Sharpe ratio.
The Sharpe ratio for the investor's portfolio is 0.45. The higher the Sharpe ratio, the better the risk-adjusted performance of the portfolio.
The Sharpe ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return that calculates the excess return of an investment per unit of risk. To calculate the Sharpe ratio, we need to know the risk-free rate, the expected return of the portfolio, and the standard deviation of the portfolio.
In this case, the investor has allocated 40% to a risky asset with an expected return of 15% and a variance of 4%, and 60% to a risk-free asset with a return of 6%. The correlation between the two assets is zero. Given that the portfolio's expected return is 9.6% and the standard deviation is 8%, we can calculate the Sharpe ratio.
The Sharpe ratio is calculated by subtracting the risk-free rate of return from the expected portfolio return and dividing it by the standard deviation of the portfolio. The formula for the Sharpe ratio is:
Sharpe Ratio = (Expected Portfolio Return - Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation
In this case, the risk-free rate is 6%, the expected portfolio return is 9.6%, and the portfolio standard deviation is 8%. Substituting these values into the formula, we can calculate the Sharpe ratio:
Sharpe Ratio = (9.6% - 6%) / 8%
Simplifying the calculation:
Sharpe Ratio = 3.6% / 8% = 0.45
Therefore, the Sharpe ratio for the investor's portfolio is 0.45. The higher the Sharpe ratio, the better the risk-adjusted performance of the portfolio. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates that the portfolio is generating higher returns per unit of risk taken.
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The suitability of criteria is the basis on which the information about the subject matter is prepared and measured. It is normally based on:
a.Relevance and reliability.
b.Neutrality and completeness.
c.Understandability.
d.All of the above.
The three parties relevant to an assurance engagement are:
Select one:
a.Users, responsible party, subject matter.
b.Assurance practitioner, responsibility party, criteria.
c.Assurance practitioner, responsibility party, users, subject matter.
d.Assurance practitioner, users, responsibility party.
The audit firm receives 40% of its total revenue from one audit client. This is an example of:
Select one:
a.Intimidation threat.
b.Self-review threat.
c.Self-interest threat.
d.Familiarity threat.
The main area of practice covered in the IFAC Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants is:
a.Fundamental principles applicable to all professional accountants
b.Fundamental principles applicable to professional accountants in public practice.
c.Fundamental principles applicable to professional accountants in business.
d.All of the above.
The suitability of criteria for preparing and measuring information is based on relevance, reliability, neutrality, and completeness. In an assurance engagement, the three parties involved are the assurance practitioner, the responsible party, and the users. When an audit firm derives a significant portion of its revenue from one client, it creates a self-interest threat. The IFAC Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants covers fundamental principles applicable to all professional accountants, those in public practice, and those in business.
The suitability of criteria for preparing and measuring information is typically based on relevance and reliability, as well as factors such as neutrality and completeness. The correct answer is option (d).Relevance ensures that the information is useful and applicable to the decision-making needs of users, while reliability ensures that the information is accurate, verifiable, and faithfully represents the subject matter.
In an assurance engagement, the three parties involved are the assurance practitioner, the responsible party (the party responsible for the subject matter), The correct answer is option (c). and the users (the intended users of the assurance report). These parties collectively play important roles in ensuring the credibility and reliability of the information being assured.
When an audit firm receives a significant portion (40% in this case) of its total revenue from one audit client, it creates a self-interest threat. The correct answer is option (c). This situation may compromise the independence and objectivity of the audit firm, as there is a risk that the firm's financial interests could influence its judgment and decision-making in relation to that client.
The main area of practice covered in the IFAC Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants includes fundamental principles applicable to all professional accountants, fundamental principles applicable to professional accountants in public practice, and fundamental principles applicable to professional accountants in business. The correct answer is option (d).
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What is your understanding the term exchange rate misalignment ?
what could happened to the country if exchange rate is misaligned
???
Exchange rate misalignment refers to a situation where the value of a country's currency, as determined by the foreign exchange market, deviates from its equilibrium level .
Capital flows and financial stability: Exchange rate misalignments can influence capital flows and financial stability. If a currency is perceived as overvalued, it may attract speculative capital inflows seeking to profit from potential currency appreciation. This can create financial market volatility and increase the risk of financial ability.
Macroeconomic adjustment: Exchange rate misalignment may require macroeconomic adjustments to restore equilibrium. For example, a country with an overvalued currency may need to implement policies to boost export competitiveness or reduce imports. Conversely, a country with an undervalued currency may need to address potential inflationary pressures or manage capital inflows.
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4. Suppose the firm is-operating in a perfectly competitive market and the market price is $10. a. What is the profit maximizing output for the firm? Explain why you chose that output level. Annver: b. What profit is the firm making at these price and output? Answer:
In a perfectly competitive market, the profit-maximizing output for a firm is determined where marginal cost (MC) equals the market price (P).
Since the market price is given as $10, the firm will produce the quantity where MC is equal to $10. At this output level, the firm will maximize its profit. b. Without additional information about the firm's cost structure, we cannot determine the specific profit the firm is making at the given price and output. Profit can be calculated by subtracting total cost (TC) from total revenue (TR).Profit = TR - TC To calculate the profit, we would need to know the firm's cost function or have information about the relationship between quantity produced and cost. Without this information, we cannot provide a specific answer regarding the firm's profit.
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China's entry into the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 2001 created more competition between local and foreign firms, and also provided China greater access to the market for exports. This was particularly true in the market for rubber since, at the time, China was the world's second largest consumer of rubber (China is now the world's largest consumer of rubber). Shortly after joining the WTO, China eliminated its import quota on rubber. What impact do you think the import quota reduction likely had on the price of rubber and the quantity of rubber exchanged in China? The price of rubber in China The quantity of rubber exchanged in China What implications do you think the elimination of the quota on rubber had on China's social welfare? Social welfare in China
The reduction of import quotas on rubber in China following its entry into the WTO likely had a significant impact on the price and quantity of rubber exchanged in the country.
With the elimination of import quotas, China experienced increased competition between local and foreign firms in the rubber market. This competition would likely lead to a more competitive pricing environment, potentially driving down the price of rubber in China. Moreover, the increased access to the global market for rubber exports provided China with the opportunity to import larger quantities of rubber, meeting its growing demand as the world's second largest consumer of rubber at the time.
The elimination of import quotas on rubber in China had implications for the country's social welfare. Firstly, the potential decrease in the price of rubber would benefit domestic industries and consumers reliant on rubber as an input, such as tire manufacturers and other rubber-dependent sectors. Lower rubber prices could result in cost savings for these industries, potentially leading to increased production and competitiveness. Additionally, lower rubber prices could translate into more affordable goods and services for consumers, contributing to improved living standards and higher purchasing power.
However, it is important to note that the impact on social welfare would not be uniform across all stakeholders, as some domestic producers may face increased competition and potential challenges in adjusting to the changing market dynamics.
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For all company disbursements, including dividends and
liquidation payments, preferred stock comes in last.
1) True or False and please explain why
The statement "For all company disbursements, including dividends and liquidation payments, preferred stock comes in last" is False.
Preferred stock generally has priority over common stock in terms of receiving dividends and liquidation payments. However, it does not always come last, as the specific terms and conditions of the preferred stock issuance and the company's financial situation can influence the payment hierarchy.
The statement is false because preferred stock typically has a higher claim on company disbursements compared to common stock.
Preferred stockholders have a preference when it comes to receiving dividends. Companies are obligated to pay dividends to preferred stockholders before distributing them to common stockholders.
In the event of liquidation, preferred stockholders also have priority over common stockholders in receiving payments. They are entitled to a specified amount or percentage of the company's assets before any residual value is distributed to common stockholders.
However, it is important to note that the payment hierarchy may vary depending on the terms and conditions specified in the preferred stock agreement.
Some preferred stocks may have cumulative provisions, which require the company to pay any missed dividends in subsequent periods before paying dividends to common stockholders.
Additionally, the financial situation of the company may also impact the order of disbursements. If the company faces financial difficulties, it may suspend or reduce dividend payments to preferred stockholders, affecting the payment hierarchy.
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Explain the relationship between a country’s current account and
the financial balances of its public and private sectors in
detail
The relationship between a country's current account and the financial balances of its public and private sectors is interconnected. The current account reflects the net flow of goods, services, income, and transfers between a country and the rest of the world.
The financial balances of the public and private sectors represent the difference between their income and expenditures. These balances can influence the current account through various channels such as savings, investments, government spending, and borrowing.
The current account is composed of the balance of trade (exports minus imports of goods and services), net income from abroad (such as interest and dividends), and net transfers (such as foreign aid or remittances).
A current account surplus indicates that a country is exporting more than it is importing, while a current account deficit signifies the opposite.
The financial balances of the public and private sectors play a role in shaping the current account. If the public sector (government) spends more than its income, it results in a government budget deficit, which can contribute to a current account deficit.
This is because the government may need to borrow from abroad to finance its deficit, increasing the country's foreign liabilities.
Similarly, the financial balance of the private sector, which includes households and businesses, can impact the current account. If the private sector saves more than it invests domestically, there is a surplus in private savings, which can be channeled into foreign investments or purchases of foreign assets.
Conversely, if the private sector invests more than it saves domestically, there is a deficit in private savings, which needs to be financed by borrowing from abroad. This can result in a current account deficit as the country imports capital to fund its investment.
The financial balances of the public and private sectors influence a country's current account. Government budget deficits and private sector savings or investment patterns can contribute to current account deficits or surpluses.
Understanding these relationships is crucial for analyzing a country's economic performance and its interactions with the global economy.
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Suppose production of a good creates a negative externality. What are two interventions the government can make in the market to help reduce the deadweight loss the negative externality creates? What is a potential downside of such interventions?
Two interventions the government can make in the market to help reduce the deadweight loss caused by a negative externality are imposing a Pigouvian tax and implementing regulations or standards.
A Pigouvian tax is a tax levied on the producers or consumers of a good that generates negative externalities. By imposing this tax, the government increases the cost of production or consumption, discouraging its use and reducing the quantity produced or consumed. This intervention internalizes the external cost and helps align private costs with social costs.
Implementing regulations or standards is another intervention the government can use to address negative externalities. By establishing rules and guidelines, the government can enforce the reduction of harmful emissions or promote the adoption of cleaner technologies. These regulations aim to limit the negative impact of production processes or consumption patterns.
However, a potential downside of these interventions is the potential distortion of market efficiency. Taxes and regulations can introduce additional costs for producers and consumers, which may lead to reduced economic activity, higher prices, or market inefficiencies. Additionally, the effectiveness of these interventions relies on accurate assessment and implementation, which can be challenging for the government. It is crucial to strike a balance between addressing negative externalities and maintaining a competitive and efficient market environment.
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1. which of the following are threats to the billing function?
a. failure to bill customer b.theft of inventory c. shipping errors d. credit sales to customers with poor credits d. two of the above e. all of the above.
2. threats during the sales order entry process include
a. incomplete or inaccurate customer orders b. customer failure to pay c. wrong inventory shipped d. the billing department invoices for the wrong amount
e. answers a and b f. none of the above.
3. segregation of duties is most important when dealing with cash which of the following activities violates proper segragation of duties –
a. issues a credit memo and records it to the customers account b. opens the mail and posts the payments to the customers account c. opens the incoming mail and sends out the customer statements. d. all of the above violates proper segregation of duties e. answers a and b violates segregation of duties.
4. which of the following inventory approaches best allows for products with short life cycles and unpredictable pattern of demand
a. EOQ b. JIT c. MRP d. two of the above e. all of the above f. none of the above
5. which of the following documents contain the departmental authorization for a purchase
a. purchase order b. blanket purchase order c. purchase requisition d. receiving report e. none of the above
6. the receiving the department prepares a receiving report indicating the receipt of goods. one copy of the report remains in receiving. the other copy of the report goes to?
a. to stores b. to the accounts receivable dept. c. to the pucrhasing dept d. accounts payable dept e. to accounts payable dept through purchasing f. none of the above
7. when paying for goods one could send a check to the vendor. alternatively one could use
a. EOQ b. EFT c. OCR d. two of the above e. none of the above
8. receiving function responsibilities include
a. determining quantities of goods needed b. preparing a packing slip c. deciding whether to accept a delivery d. verifying the quantity and quality of goods delivered.
e. two of the above f. three of the above
9. which of the following is a binding contract once accepted by the recipient?
a. purchase order b. purchase requisition c. vendor invoice d. packing slip e. two of the above f. none of the above
10. the objective of the approve and pay vendor invoices is to ensure?
a. company pays only for goods and service ordered.
b. company pays only for goods and service received.
c. company pays only for goods and services ordered and received.
d. safeguard cash
e. none of the above.
The threats to the billing function include: a. failure to bill customer and d. credit sales to customers with poor credits. (Answer: e. all of the above)
The billing function in an organization faces various threats that can impact its effectiveness and financial stability. One of the threats is the failure to bill customers, which can result in revenue loss and cash flow problems. Additionally, credit sales to customers with poor credit can lead to bad debts and potential write-offs. These credit sales pose a risk to the organization's financial health. Therefore, both failure to bill customers and credit sales to customers with poor credit are significant threats to the billing function.
Theft of inventory (option b) and shipping errors (option c) are not directly related to the billing function. While they can affect overall business operations, they do not directly impact the billing process itself. Therefore, the correct answer is e. all of the above, as both failure to bill customers and credit sales to customers with poor credit are specific threats that directly affect the billing function.
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On March 1, 2020, ExCo's board of directors declared a cash dividend of $0.70 per common share to shareholders of record on March 10, payable March 31. There were 115,000 shares issued and outstanding on March 1 and no additional shares had been issued during the month. Record the entries for March 1, 10, and 31. The cash dividends account is used. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field.)
1 Record the declaration of cash dividend on common shares of $0.70 per share.
2 Record the declaration of cash dividend of $0.70 per share to share holders on record.
3 Record the payment of dividends declared on March 1.
On March 1, 2020, ExCo's board declared a dividend of $0.70 per common share. On March 10, it was declared to shareholders of record, and on March 31, the dividends were paid.
On March 1, the declaration of a cash dividend is recorded by debiting the Retained Earnings account and crediting the Dividends Payable account. The Retained Earnings account reflects the reduction in equity due to the dividend declaration, while the Dividends Payable account represents the obligation to pay the dividends to the shareholders. The entry would be:
Retained Earnings (DR) XXX
Dividends Payable (CR) XXX
On March 10, there is no journal entry required. This date signifies the record date, which is used to determine the shareholders who are eligible to receive the dividend. It does not involve any direct accounting entry.
On March 31, the payment of the declared dividends is recorded by debiting the Dividends Payable account and crediting the Cash account. This entry reflects the reduction in the dividend liability and the outflow of cash. The entry would be:
Dividends Payable (DR) XXX
Cash (CR) XXX
Note: The XXX in the journal entries represents the dollar amount of the dividend declared and paid per share, multiplied by the number of outstanding shares.
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