The first response by the immune system consists of the activity of innate immune response.
What is the first response of the immune system?
The first set of responses consist of the innate immune response because the innate system used the recognition molecules that have large number of cells. This system act quickly after an invading pathogen or toxin enter in your body which leads to the initial host response. The innate immune system triggers an acute inflammatory response to control the infection.
So we can conclude that the first response by the immune system consists of the activity of innate immune response.
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What part of henry’s cochlea may have damaged hair cells? What part of henry’s cochlea may have functional hair cells?
The henry's may have damaged and functional hair cells of cochlea in organ of corti.
Hearing and the Cochlea:
Sound waves that enter the ear go through the external auditory canal before they strike the eardrum and cause it to vibrate. The incus receives sound vibrations from the malleus, also called "hammer," which is linked to the eardrum, and sends them on to the stapes.The stapes is a framework that moves the oval window in and out. This motion is received by the cochlea, a fluid-filled snail-like structure that houses the organ of Corti, the hearing organ. Small hair cells make up the lining of the cochlea. These cells convert vibrations into electrical impulses that sensory nerves then transmit to the brain. the Corti organ, which has four rows of hair cells. On the left, there is an inner row, and on the right, there are three outside rows. The stapes first sways against the oblong glass. This causes sound waves to travel into the cochlear fluid and move the organ of Corti.Lower frequency sound resonates with fibers towards the cochlea's upper end. Higher frequencies elicit a response from those near the oval window.Learn more about the Structure of ear with the help of the given link:
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A dihybrid cross produces 30 recombinant offspring out of a total of 1,000 offspring. What is the recombination frequency of the two gene pairs?
The recombination frequency of the two gene pairs is 3%.
The number of recombinant offspring(r.o.) / total number of offspring x 100% = recombination frequency(θ):
r.o./total x 100% = θ
30/100 x 100% = 3%
Recombinant offspring are children that have a different allele combination to their parents.
For example, say a mother has a haploid cell with the alleles AB and the father has a haploid cell with the alleles ab. These combine to make a diploid cell with the sequence Aa+Bb.
Formation of Recombinant Offspring :
Recombination can happen in two different ways; independent assortment and crossing over.
Independent assortment is when the maternal and parental DNA are mixed during meiosis, creating a new gene sequence.Crossing over happens during the first stage of meiosis when the two homologous chromosomes are paired and a portion breaks off on the same loci then reconnects to a different end. Crossing over can only happen when there isn't a physical linkage of the parental alleles.Recombination frequency (θ) is the frequency with which a single chromosomal crossover will take place between two genes during meiosis. A centimorgan (cM) is a unit that describes a recombination frequency of 1%. In this way we can measure the genetic distance between two loci, based upon their recombination frequency. This is a good estimate of the real distance. Double crossovers would turn into no recombination. In this case we cannot tell if crossovers took place. If the loci we're analysing are very close (less than 7 cM) a double crossover is very unlikely. When distances become higher, the likelihood of a double crossover increases. As the likelihood of a double crossover increases we systematically underestimate the genetic distance between two loci.
When two genes are close together on the same chromosome, they do not assort independently and are said to be linked. Whereas genes located on different chromosomes assort independently and have a recombination frequency of 50%, linked genes have a recombination frequency that is less than 50%.
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Acetyl coa is a feed forward activator of the enzyme ________ ensuring sufficient oxaloacetate for the citric acid cycle to continue.
Acetyl CoA is a feed forward activator of the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase ensuring sufficient oxaloacetate for the citric acid cycle to continue.
Why does acetyl-CoA stimulate pyruvate carboxylase?Acetyl-CoA selectively activates pyruvate carboxylase. When acetyl-CoA concentrations are high, organisms use pyruvate carboxylase to divert pyruvate from the TCA cycle because acetyl-CoA is a crucial metabolite in the TCA cycle that generates a lot of energy. The production of more oxaloacetate is triggered by an excess of mitochondrial acetyl-CoA.
Acetyl coenzyme A, often known as acetyl-CoA, is a crucial component in metabolism and is involved in numerous metabolic processes. Its major job is to transport the acetyl group's carbon atoms to the Krebs cycle, where they can be oxidized to produce energy. When there is an abundance of acetyl CoA available, the mitochondrial enzyme pyruvate carboxylase (PC) catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate.
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A food contains 1.1 grams carbohydrates, 13 grams protein, and 11 grams fats. how many calories does the food provide?
What is the medical term for the act of belching or raising gas orally from the stomach?
Eructation is the medical term for the act of belching or raising gas orally from the stomach. It is preceding vomiting consists of pronged retching movement during the period of nausea and spasmodic uncoordinated contraction of muscles of respiration during diaphragm contracts.
Passing of gas through the mouth is called as burping. The return of swallowed food to the mouth is known as regurgitation. This is the process to eliminate the gas that is produced as a byproduct of microbial fermentation.
Burping keeps your stomach from expanding too much from swallowed air. That air travels back to esophagus, which leads to an audible release that people it burp.
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When an ammunition malfunction occurs, who is responsible for determining if the ammunition can be moved safely?
name the two parts of an ecosystem from which organisms need resources to survive and reproduce?
Answer:
abiotic and biotic
Explanation:
the abiotic components of any ecosystem are properties os the environment
Why do normal fluctuations in blood oxygen levels have little influence on respiratory control?
fluctuations in blood oxygen levels have little influence on the respiratory control center
Only 33% of the participants had increased RR when their oxygen saturation was under 90%. Conclusions: Respiratory control measurements do not consistently detect desaturation and have a poor correlation with oxygen saturation measurements. Patients with low SaO2 don't typically have higher RR.
The medulla oblongata contains the respiratory control center, which regulates breathing on a minute-by-minute basis. Respiratory rhythm is not produced by a homogeneous population of pacemaker cells, unlike the cardiac system.
The dorsal respiratory group is located in the nucleus tractus solitarius, the ventral respiratory group is located in the medulla, and the pontine respiratory group is located in the pons. These three separate neuronal groups make up the respiratory control center.
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The ____________ plays a significant role in the icf because phosphates are capable of binding and unbinding h , depending on current conditions of acidity or alkalinity.
The phosphate buffer system plays a significant role in the ICF because phosphates are capable of binding and unbinding H⁺, depending on current conditions of acidity or alkalinity.
What is the role of the phosphate buffer system in ICF?The phosphate buffer system plays an important role in buffering intracellular fluid (ICF).
H₂PO₄⁻ and HPO₄²⁻ are the two primary components of the phosphate buffer system. When a mixture of these two chemicals is exposed to a potent acid, such as HCl, the hydrogen is absorbed by the base HPO₄²⁻ and transformed into H₂PO₄⁻.
The strong acid, HCl, is replaced by another weak acid, NaH₂PO₄, as a result of this reaction, which also minimizes pH reduction.
The OH⁻ is buffered by the H₂PO₄⁻ to create further amounts of HPO₄²⁻ + H₂O when a strong base, such as NaOH, is added to the buffer system.
In this scenario, a strong base (NaOH) is exchanged for a weak base (NaH₂PO₄), leading to a minimal pH increase.
The body fluids' typical pH is 7.4, so the phosphate buffer system's pK of 6.8, which is close to that value, enables the system to function close to its maximal buffering capacity.
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How many African Americans are carriers of the sickle-cell allele?
1 in 100
1 in 11
1 in 500
1 in 50
Answer:
Sickle cell trait is an inherited blood disorder that affects 1 million to 3 million Americans and 8 to 10 percent of African Americans.
Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder that is carried by 1 in 500 African Americans, according to the National Institute of Health (NIH).
Sickle cell anemia occurs due to mutation in the beta chain of the hemoglobin molecule, where the glutamic acid at the 6th position of chromosome 11 is substituted by valine.
Having a sickle cell trait cannot cause disorder because the person with the sickle cell trait only contains one allele containing this mutation. Contrary to this, a patient with Sickle cell anemia has a mutation in both alleles.
The African populations were most prone to malaria, and sickle cell trait evolved as a mechanism of defense against malaria. Having the Sickle cell trait helps in fighting the malarial pathogen.
Apart from the African American population, people having ancestors from Sub-Saharan, South Asian, Middle Eastern, Central, and South American origin are also prone to contain the Sickle cell trait.
This concludes that people of African American origin are prone to inherit the sickle cell trait from their ancestors, and about 1 in every 500 people will be a carrier of this allele.
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Given the following diagram, what product is produced at Location A?
This diagram shows various processes and products in the global carbon cycle. Location A shows organisms in the ocean undergoing photosynthesis and respiration.
Public Domain
Carbohydrates
Carbonic acid
Fossil fuels
Limestone
What can be determined by exhaustive methylation of an oligosaccharide with ch3i followed by acid hydrolysis?
Methylation analysis and then hydrolysis are utilized to confirm the new oligosaccharide's glycosidic linkage information.
What is an oligosaccharide?
When two or more monosaccharides bind together via O-glycosidic bonds, oligosaccharides are formed.When compared to other, more prevalent carbohydrates, including those in the disaccharide group, oligosaccharides, or carbohydrates with between 3 and 10 single sugar residues, are not as prevalent in the diet.Examples of oligosaccharides: sucrose, lactose and maltose
What is Exhaustive methylation?Exhaustive methylation is the process of adding methyl groups to an alkyl ring until all methylations are complete. Extensive methylation transforms an amine into an alkylammonium salt prior to E2 elimination in the Hofmann elimination reaction sequence.To learn more about exhaustive methylation visit:
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The axial skeleton contains ________. 1. skull 2. scapula 3. true and false ribs 4. vertebrae 5. phalanges
The axial skeleton contains the skull, true and false ribs, and vertebrae. Option 1 and 4.
What is axial skeleton?The axial skeleton is a portion of the skeleton that consists of the bones of the head, the neck, the chest, and the back.
It is in contrast to the appendicular skeleton which consists of the bones of the upper and lower extreme of the body, including the bones of the shoulder and the pelvis.
The axial skeleton consists of 80 bones altogether, including the bones of the ears and the vertebral column.
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There are approximately 4 to 11 ____________ white blood cells per microliter of blood.
There are approximately 4,500 to 11,000 WBCs white blood cells per microliter of blood.
The immune system of the body includes white blood cells. They support the body's defenses against illness and infection.Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), monocytes, and lymphocytes are different types of white blood cells (T cells and B cells).Blood typically contains 4,500 to 11,000 WBCs per microliter (4.5 to 11.0 109/L), or WBCs. Different labs may have slightly different normal value ranges. Some laboratories may test various specimens or utilize various metrics. Discuss your test results with your provider.Too many white blood cells typically indicate an infection or inflammatory condition within the body. A high white blood cell count may, less frequently, be a sign of some blood malignancies or bone marrow issues.learn more about white blood cells here: https://brainly.com/question/87658
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In the onpg and mug test for fecal coliforms, a sample that is positive for e. coli will be:_________.
In the ONPG and mug test for fecal coliforms, a sample that is positive for e. coliforms will be positive for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light
A colorimetric and spectrophotometric substrate for detecting -galactosidase activity is ortho-Nitrophenyl—galactoside (ONPG). Normally, this substance is colorless. On the other hand, if -galactosidase is present, it hydrolyzes the ONPG molecule into ortho-nitrophenol and galactose.
If the body has beta-galactosidase, it will split the beta-galactoside link and release the yellow chemical o-nitrophenol. This denotes a successful test. ☰ The test organism is collected from a medium with a high lactose concentration when using the disc method. The enzyme may break down ONPG, a lactose analog, to form the O-nitrophenol end product, which has a yellow tint. You must be sure to grow this organism on media rich in lactose because this enzyme can only be produced in the presence of the lactose substrate.
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Which line depicts the growth of a population of acidophiles in the vaginal tract?
A glycogen-rich vaginal milieu depicts the growth of a population of acidophiles in the vaginal tract.
An efficient initial line of defense against invading pathogens, such as bacterial vaginosis, aerobic vaginitis-associated bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, is provided by lactobacilli and their antibacterial and anti-inflammatory compounds combined with elements of the epithelial mucosal barrier. Eubiosis and the health of the vagina depend on a healthy host-microbe interaction.
The lactic acid and cytolysin generated by lactobacilli promote glycogen availability and the lysis of epithelial cells. Lactic acid makes the vaginal environment more acidic, which encourages the growth of Lactobacilli while preventing the formation of infection-related organisms.
The bacteria that inhabit the vagina are known as vaginal flora. Several lactobacillus species predominate in the normal vaginal flora. By creating lactic acid, hydrogen peroxide, and other compounds that stop the growth of yeast and other undesirable organisms, lactobacilli contribute to the vagina's overall health.
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How does intestinal failure affect the body? carbon dioxide builds up in the body. carbon dioxide builds up in the body. energy is not given to the body. energy is not given to the body. oxygen does not make it to the brain. oxygen does not make it to the brain. blood is not moved in the body.
Answer:
Its energy is not given to body
Explanation:
Intestinal failure is basically like where your intestines is slow and has no energy.
Which description is an example of gravitational potential energy transforming into kinetic energy?
A roller coaster is a classic example of conversion of kinetic energy into gravitational potential and gravitational potential into kinetic energy.
What is kinetic energy ?The kinetic energy of an object is the energy that it possesses due to its motion. It is defined as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its stated velocity. Having gained this energy during its acceleration, the body maintains this kinetic energy unless its speed changes.
What is gravitational potential energy ?Gravitational potential energy is energy an object possesses because of its position in a gravitational field. The most common use of gravitational potential energy is for an object near the surface of the Earth where the gravitational acceleration can be assumed to be constant at about 9.8 m/s2.
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Which of the following would NOT conserve energy from fossil fuels? *
Oturning down the heat in the winter
Owalking to places
O using a gas fireplace for heat
Obiking to aces
Helppp
Answer:
C using gas for heat
Explanation:
only thing that uses fossil fuels
For gas exchange with the atmosphere, the respiratory tissue...
Question 5 options:
a) Must have thick cell walls
b) Have a large surface area
c) Be moist
d) Both b and c are correct
e) a) b) and c) are all correct
Answer:
i guess both option b and c are correct
For gas exchange with the atmosphere, the respiratory tissue must have thin walls, large surface area and be moist.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option d) Both b and c are correct
What are the adaptations of respiratory system?The respiratory system helps in exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the body.This exchange of gases takes place in the alveoli of lungs.Oxygen moves from lungs into the blood and carbon dioxide moves from the blood into alveoli of lungs where it is eventually exhaled into the atmosphere.The alveoli have several adaptations for exchange of gases.These adaptations include having a large surface area, moist surface, extensive blood supply, thin, permeable walls and high pressure gradient of gases.For rapid diffusion of gases, a very thin wall of epithelium is required between the alveoli and the surrounding capillaries such as simple squamous epithelium.Learn more about respiration here:
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Neurons in the hypothalamus regulate the activity of secretory cells in the anterior pituitary gland by:________
Neurons in the hypothalamus regulate the activity of secretory cells in the anterior pituitary gland by releasing hormones. Pituitary gland basically store the hormones which is produce by the hypothalamus.
Hypothalamus connect the nervous and endocrine systems by way of the pituitary gland. Both are connected directly to the pituitary gland by a thin stalk which is called infundibulum.
Its main function is to secrete releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones that stimulate the production of hormones in the anterior pituitary. FSH and LH both are produce and secret gonadotropins which regulated by the hypothalami releasing hormone, GnRH. These are the releasing hormones which control the release of another hormone.
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when evaluating a dorsal decubitus abdomen radiograph, the technologist notices that the iliac crests are superimposed, the pedicles of the lumbar vertebrae are superimposed, and the intervertebral joints are open. what, if any, mistake in positioning has been made
If when evaluating a dorsal decubitus abdomen radiograph, the technologist notices that the iliac crests are superimposed, the pedicles of the lumbar vertebrae are superimposed, and the intervertebral joints are open. No mistake in the positioning has been made.
What is dorsal decubitus abdomen radiograph?Dorsal decubitus abdomen radiograph can be defined as they type of x-ray conducted by sonographer when a patient is lying on the his or her back so as to check and diagnose if the patient as any of the following condition:
Abdominal traumaIatrogenic injury etc.Despite noticing that the iliac crests are superimposed, the pedicles of the lumbar vertebrae are superimposed, and the intervertebral joints are open No mistake has been made in the positioning.
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N monod's experiment, the b-galactosidase enzyme appeared almost immediately when lactose was added to a growing culture. which explanation is consistent with this finding?
In this experiment of Monod's the b-galactosidase enzyme appeared almost immediately when lactose was added to growing culture in the presence of lactose activates a pre-existing , but inactive , b-galactosidase.
Monod's experiment with the E.coli to see if when exposed to sugars, those cells always produced new enzymes or if instead they had enzymes that rearranged themselves. According to this - the set of genes that are transcribed in the prokaryotes are under the control of operons.
An enzymes b- gaalactosidase cleaves the disaccharide lactose by which it produce the galactose and glucose which then ultimately enter in process of glycolysis. Also causes transgalactosylation reaction of lactose to allolactose.
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Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because?
Because the virus causes severe tissue necrosis and inflammation, secondary bacterial infections happen often during influenza outbreaks.
What are Secondary infections?
There are several ways that a primary infection can increase susceptibility to disease, leading to a secondary infection.
A secondary infection is one that develops during or following the treatment for a primary illness. It has been determined that a secondary bacterial infection affects up to 75% of people who acquire pneumonia after contracting the flu.
The prevalence of influenza and related secondary bacterial illnesses can be decreased by using infection prevention techniques. The best method to prevent this is to be vaccinated against the flu every year and practice proper hygiene, like frequent, thorough handwashing.
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When stomata are open and a plant is transpiring normally, how does water move from the soil into the root xylem? select all that apply.
When stomata are open and a plant is transpiring normally, movement of water from the soil into the root xylem is brought about by:-
Pressure generated by roots which pumps water upwards in the plant. Without any additional work done on the fluid by the plant.Evaporation from the leaves in the form of transpiration.In 1895, the Irish plant physiologists H. H. Dixon and J. Joly suggested that water is pulled up the plant by tension or negative pressure from above.
As water is continually being lost from the leaves through transpiration, Dixon and Joly concluded that the loss of water in the leaves exerts a pull on the water in the xylem ducts and draws more water into the leaf.
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_________, which involves severe impairment of memory as part of a loss of intellect and personality, is most closely associated with the deterioration of _________-producing neurons.
Alzheimer's which involves severe impairment of memory as part of a loss of intellect and personality, is most closely associated with the deterioration of ; acetylcholine producing neurons.
As far as dementia goes, Alzheimer's disease is the most prevalent. The disease is gradual, starting with mild memory loss and potentially progressing to the loss of communication and environmental awareness. The brain regions that are responsible for thought, memory, and language are affected by Alzheimer's disease. Age-related changes in the brain as well as genetic, environmental, and lifestyle variables are likely contributing factors. There are less acetylcholine molecules in the brains of those who have Alzheimer's disease. Acetylcholine aids in the communication between certain nerve cells. Some of the acetylcholine-using nerve cells are also lost as a result of Alzheimer's disease.learn more about Alzheimer's here: https://brainly.com/question/18406872
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What does asexual and sexual reproduction have in common?
Require living cells
Produces offspring
Has DNA for genetic information
What does the fossil trace golf course in golden, colorado, have to do with mineral resources?what does the fossil trace golf course in golden, colorado, have to do with mineral resources?
Fossil trace golf course is a prehistoric club with a massive remnants of clay mining equipment can be seen throughout the layout designed by renowned architect Jim Engh.
what is fossil trace golf course?A club with ancient history and remnants of clay mining equipment.
Each piece is of rich history of the property and save the memories of many award winning golf players.
It was established in July 2003 in the Colorado City of Golden which was actually opened 64-million years
Fossil Trace Golf Club is widely called as one of Denver’s top golf course.
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Alpha helices are a type of secondary structure in proteins. What is the length of a 37.0 kda single‑stranded α‑helical protein segment?
The protein having 37kda has 336.36 amino acids long, roughly making single-stranded alpha-helix 93.43 turns, giving it a rise in 504.4 Â (Armstrong).
A secondary structure component, an alpha helix, has an amino acid chain organised in a spiral. The following characteristics describe the perfect alpha helix:
It is a right-handed helix that completes one turn every 3.6 residues, rises by about 5.4 with each turn, and is often somewhat curved.Hydrogen bonds hold it together between the C=O of residue I and the NH of residue I+4.The (phi, psi) angles of all residues involved in an alpha-helix are comparable. These angles, around -60 and -50, are taken from the Ramachandran plot's bottom left quadrant.To learn more about alpha-helix click here
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The __________ gland is the gland that triggers other glands to release hormones.
The pituitary gland is the gland that triggers other glands to release hormones. It is a pea sized gland attached to the base of the brain. It is important in controlling growth and development and the functioning of the other endocrine glands. Without the pituitary gland, the body wouldn't reproduce, wouldn't grow properly and wouldn't function.