A bullet of mass m = 8.00 g is fired into a block of mass M = 260 g that is initially at rest at the edge of a table of height h = 1.00 m (see figure below). The bullet remains in the block, and after the impact the block lands d = 2.10 m from the bottom of the table. Determine the initial speed of the bullet.

Answers

Answer 1

The initial speed of the bullet is approximately 1.622 m/s.

Step 1: Apply the principle of conservation of momentum before and after the impact:

Before the impact: The momentum of the bullet is equal to the negative momentum of the block.

m * v = -(m + M) * vf

Step 2: Apply the principle of conservation of mechanical energy:

The initial potential energy of the bullet is m * g * h.

The final kinetic energy of the bullet-block system is (m + M) * vf^2 / 2.

m * g * h = (m + M) * vf^2 / 2

Step 3: Substitute the known values:

m = 8.00 g = 0.008 kg

M = 260 g = 0.260 kg

h = 1.00 m

Step 4: Solve the equations simultaneously:

From the momentum conservation equation: m * v = -(m + M) * vf

0.008 * v = -(0.008 + 0.260) * vf

0.008v = -0.268vf (equation 1)

From the energy conservation equation: m * g * h = (m + M) * vf^2 / 2

0.008 * 9.8 * 1.00 = (0.008 + 0.260) * vf^2 / 2

0.0784 = 0.268 * vf^2 (equation 2)

Step 5: Solve equation 1 for vf:

vf = -(0.008v) / 0.268 (equation 3)

Step 6: Substitute equation 3 into equation 2 and solve for v:

0.0784 = 0.268 * [-(0.008v) / 0.268]^2

0.0784 = 0.008 * v^2 / 0.268

v^2 = 0.0784 * 0.268 / 0.008

v^2 = 2.632

v = √2.632

v ≈ 1.622 m/s

Therefore, the initial speed of the bullet is approximately 1.622 m/s.

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Related Questions

Name three specific objects that are commonly used as distance
indicators.

Answers

The three specific objects that are commonly used as distance indicators are measuring tapes, rules, and pedometers.

Distance indicators are used to measure distances, there are various distance indicators that are commonly used, including objects, devices and technology. Here are three specific objects that are commonly used as distance indicators such as measuring tapes are a common tool used for measuring distance. They are usually made of flexible materials such as cloth or metal that can be wound up and stored in a compact case. Measuring tapes are used in various fields including construction, engineering, and fashion design.

Rulers are flat, straight-edged tools used for measuring distance, they are commonly made of plastic or metal and come in different lengths. Rulers are used in various fields including art, engineering, and education. Pedometers are devices used for measuring distance travelled by counting the number of steps taken, they are commonly used by athletes, hikers, and fitness enthusiasts. Pedometers are also used in medical research and clinical settings to monitor the activity levels of patients. So therefore the three specific objects that are commonly used as distance indicators are measuring tapes, rules, and pedometers.

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generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

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Carburetor heat is a feature that raises the temperature of the air going into the carburetor of an internal combustion engine, allowing it to function better when operating in cold weather.

Carburetor heat is a mechanism in aviation engines used to prevent or remove ice formation within the carburetor. Ice can form when the temperature drops and there is moisture in the air, particularly at lower altitudes or in high humidity conditions.

When carburetor heat is applied, it directs warm air into the carburetor, melting any ice that may have formed. However, the introduction of warm air can also cause a decrease in air density, leading to a richer fuel-to-air mixture. This results in increased fuel consumption and a potential decrease in engine performance, including reduced power output and higher engine temperatures.

Pilots are trained to use carburetor heat judiciously, applying it when necessary to prevent ice formation, but also being mindful of its impact on engine performance. It is typically recommended to reduce or turn off carburetor heat once the ice has been cleared to restore optimal engine operation.

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A particle carrying a charge of +32.0 nC is located at (10.0 nm, 95.0 nm), and a particle carrying a charge of +98.0 nC is located at (45.0 nm, 56.0 nm).

Part A Calculate the magnitude of the electric force exerted on a charged particle placed at the origin if the charge on that particle is 3.90 μC.

Part B Calculate the magnitude of the electric force exerted on a charged particle placed at the origin if the charge on that particle is 7.15 μC.

Part C Calculate the magnitude of the electric force exerted on a charged particle placed at the origin if the charge on that particle is 98.1 nC.

Part D Calculate the magnitude of the electric force exerted on a charged particle placed at the origin if the charge on that particle is -79.5 nC.

Part E Calculate the magnitude of the electric force exerted on a charged particle placed at the origin if the charge on that particle is 1.00 mC..

Part F Calculate the magnitude of the electric force exerted on a charged particle placed at the origin if the charge on that particle is 34.1 C.

Answers

The magnitude of the electric force exerted on the charged particle at the origin varies depending on the charge of the particle being considered. The results for each case are as follows: A) 0.00367 N, B) 0.00673 N, C) 0.0222 N, D) 0.000593 N, E) 0.367 N, F) 9.91 x [tex]10^{9}[/tex]N

Part A: To calculate the magnitude of the electric force exerted on a charged particle placed at the origin (0, 0) with a charge of 3.90 μC, we can use Coulomb's Law.

Coulomb's Law states that the magnitude of the electric force between two charged particles is given by F = k * (|q1| * |q2|) / r^2, where F is the force, k is the electrostatic constant (9.0 x [tex]10^{9}[/tex] N [tex]m^{2}[/tex]/[tex]C^{2}[/tex]), q1 and q2 are the charges of the particles, and r is the distance between them.

In this case, q1 = 3.90 μC = 3.90 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] C, q2 = 32.0 nC = 32.0 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, and r = distance between (0, 0) and (10.0 nm, 95.0 nm)

= [tex]\sqrt{10nm^{2} + 95nm^{2}[/tex] .

Plugging these values into the formula, we get

F = (9.0 x 10^9 N [tex]m^{2}[/tex]/[tex]C^{2}[/tex]) * ((3.90 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] C) * (32.0 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C)) / [tex]\sqrt{10nm^{2} + 95nm^{2}[/tex].

Simplifying the expression gives F ≈ 0.00367 N.

Part B: Following the same procedure as in Part A, with q1 = 7.15 μC = 7.15 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] C, q2 = 32.0 nC = 32.0 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, and the same distance, we obtain F ≈ 0.00673 N.

Part C: Using q1 = 98.1 nC = 98.1 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, q2 = 32.0 nC = 32.0 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, and the same distance, we find F ≈ 0.0222 N.

Part D: For q1 = -79.5 nC = -79.5 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, q2 = 32.0 nC = 32.0 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, and the same distance, we have F ≈ 0.000593 N.

Part E: Considering q1 = 1.00 mC = 1.00 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] C, q2 = 32.0 nC = 32.0 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, and the same distance, we get F ≈ 0.367 N.

Part F: Finally, with q1 = 34.1 C, q2 = 32.0 nC = 32.0 x [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] C, and the same distance, we obtain F ≈ 9.91 x 10^9 N.

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3- Deduce a Gauss' law in a dielectric material. Solution:

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Gauss' law in a dielectric material can be deduced by considering the concept of electric displacement and the divergence theorem. It states that the total electric flux through a closed surface is equal to the total charge enclosed by the surface, considering both free charges and bound charges due to polarization.

Gauss' law in integral form states that the total electric flux (Φ) passing through a closed surface (S) is equal to the total charge (Q) enclosed by the surface, divided by the permittivity of free space (ε₀). In the presence of dielectric material, the law is modified to incorporate the effects of polarization.

The electric displacement (D) is introduced as a new quantity, defined as D = ε₀E + P, where E is the electric field and P is the polarization vector representing the electric dipole moment per unit volume of the dielectric material.

Using the divergence theorem, which relates the flux through a closed surface to the divergence of a vector field within the enclosed volume, we can deduce Gauss' law in a dielectric material as follows:

∮S D · dA = ε₀ ∮S E · dA + ∮S P · dA

The left-hand side represents the total electric flux through the surface S due to the electric displacement, while the first term on the right-hand side represents the flux due to the free charges (ε₀E) and the second term represents the flux due to the bound charges (P).

Applying Gauss' law for free charges (∮S E · dA = Q_free / ε₀) and taking into account the polarization (∮S P · dA = -Q_bound), we obtain:

∮S D · dA = Q

where Q is the total charge (Q = Q_free + Q_bound) enclosed by the surface.

Hence, Gauss' law in a dielectric material states that the total electric flux through a closed surface is equal to the total charge enclosed by the surface, considering both free charges and bound charges due to polarization.

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Problem/Task 6 A tube open on both ends has the fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. The speed of sound is 320 m/s. You cut this tube in half and close one end with a stopper. Calculate the frequency of the fifth harmonic/mode for a standing wave generated in the new tube.

Answers

Frequency of fifth harmonic = 5 * (320 / L) = (1600 / L)

In the new tube, the length is half of the original length. Let's assume the original length of the tube is L. Therefore, the length of the new tube is L/2.

For the fifth harmonic (n = 5) in the new tube:

Frequency of fifth harmonic = 5 * (v / (2 * L/2))

= 5 * (v / L)

Given that the speed of sound is 320 m/s, we can substitute the values:

Frequency of fifth harmonic = 5 * (320 / L)= (1600 / L)

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Consider a spherical conducting shell with inner radius 5 cm, outer radius 10 cm with a charge of 50 nC, concentric with a solid insulating sphere with radius 2 cm and charge of −10nC. Calculate the electric field 8 cm away from the center in N/C.

Answers

The electric field contribution from the solid insulating sphere at a point 8 cm away from the center is [tex]-1.405 * 10^6 N/C.[/tex]

To calculate the electric field at a point 8 cm away from the center, we need to consider the contributions from both the conducting shell and the solid insulating sphere.

Electric field contribution from the conducting shell:

Since the point is outside the conducting shell, the electric field inside a conductor is zero. Therefore, the conducting shell does not contribute to the electric field at this point.

Electric field contribution from the solid insulating sphere:

To calculate the electric field from a charged solid sphere at a point outside the sphere, we can use the formula:

E = k * (Q / r²)

where:

E is the electric field,

k is Coulomb's constant ([tex]8.99 * 10^9 N m^2/C^2[/tex]),

Q is the charge of the sphere, and

r is the distance from the center of the sphere.

In this case, the charge of the solid insulating sphere is -10 nC and the distance from the center to the point is 8 cm.

[tex]E_{sphere} = (8.99 * 10^9 N m^2/C^2) * (-10 * 10^{-9} C) / (0.08 m)^2[/tex]

[tex]E_{sphere} = (8.99 *10^9 N m^2/C^2) * (-10 * 10^{-9} C) / (0.08^2 m^2)[/tex]

[tex]E_{sphere} = (-8.99 * 10^9 N m^2/C^2) * (10 * 10^{-9} C) / (0.0064 m^2)[/tex]

[tex]E_{sphere} = -1.405 * 10^6 N/C[/tex]

Therefore, the electric field contribution from the solid insulating sphere at a point 8 cm away from the center is [tex]-1.405 * 10^6 N/C[/tex]. Note that the negative sign indicates the direction of the electric field vector.

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What is an inversion? When summer seasons have many heat waves A cap on the atmosphere Pressure and density increase with height Cold air is trapped above warm air

Answers

Inversion is defined as the weather event in which a layer of warm air is trapped above a layer of cool air. It is a type of atmospheric condition in which air temperature rises as altitude increases instead of the opposite.

This causes a phenomenon in which cold air is trapped below warm air. In other words, an inversion happens when the normal air temperature structure is flipped upside down, and a layer of warm air is on top of a layer of cold air.

A cap on the atmosphere is created by an inversion. The increase in pressure and density with height in the atmosphere creates this cap. As a result of this layer, the air near the ground is trapped and unable to rise, resulting in the formation of fog or smog.

Cold air is trapped above warm air because of inversion, which causes heatwaves during the summer season. Because the warm air above acts as a seal or lid, trapping the cooler air beneath, this occurs.

The atmosphere's temperature usually decreases as the altitude increases. However, during an inversion, temperature and pressure increase with altitude.

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answer is 4,686.0288
Question 32 1 pts Find the momentum of a helium nucleus having a mass of 6.68x10-27kg that is moving at a speed of 0.781c (in units of MeV/c)

Answers

The momentum of the helium nucleus, moving at a speed of 0.781c, is approximately 0.877 MeV/c.

To find the momentum of a helium nucleus, we can use the relativistic momentum equation:

p = γm0v

where:

p is the momentum,

γ is the Lorentz factor,

m0 is the rest mass of the helium nucleus,

v is the velocity.

Given:

m0 = 6.68x10^-27 kg,

v = 0.781c (c represents the speed of light).

To calculate the momentum in units of MeV/c, we need to convert the mass to energy using Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation: E = mc^2.

Converting the mass to energy:

E = (6.68x10^-27 kg) * (3x10^8 m/s)^2

E ≈ 6.0112x10^-11 J

Now, let's calculate the velocity in terms of the speed of light:

v = 0.781c

v ≈ 0.781 * 3x10^8 m/s

v ≈ 2.343x10^8 m/s

Next, we calculate the Lorentz factor:

γ = 1 / √(1 - (v/c)^2)

= 1 / √(1 - (2.343x10^8 m/s / 3x10^8 m/s)^2)

≈ 1.578

Finally, we can calculate the momentum:

p = γm0v

= (1.578) * (6.68x10^-27 kg) * (2.343x10^8 m/s)

≈ 4.686x10^-19 kg·m/s

To convert the momentum to MeV/c, we use the conversion factor: 1 MeV/c = 5.344x10^-19 kg·m/s.

p ≈ (4.686x10^-19 kg·m/s) / (5.344x10^-19 kg·m/s)

p ≈ 0.877 MeV/c

Therefore, the momentum of the helium nucleus, moving at a speed of 0.781c, is approximately 0.877 MeV/c.

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6. Consider a cylindrical system of length L, sharing the same axis, with the smaller cylinder having a radius of a and charge Q, and the larger cylinder having an inner radius of b and charge −Q. In the limit of L≫>b, the electric field from a 2πϵ
0

Lr
Q

What is the capacitance of this system? A. C=
ln(b/a)
2πLϵ
0



B. C=
b−a
2πLϵ0

C. C=
b−a
2πbLe
0



D. C=
(b−a)
2

2πLϵ
0



a B C D

Answers

The correct option is (A) C=ln(b/a)2πLϵ0. The capacitance of the given system is given by the formula;C= Q/(Vb - Va)where Vb and Va are the potentials of the larger and smaller cylinders respectively.

To calculate these potentials we need to determine the electric field inside the system.

The electric field from a cylindrical shell of radius r and charge Q is given by;E = Q/(2πrLε0).

The potential difference between the smaller and larger cylinders is given by;Vb - Va = -∫a^b Edr=-∫a^b Q/(2πrLε0) dr = Q/2πLε0 ln(b/a)

Putting this value in the formula for capacitance;C = Q/(Vb - Va)C = Q/(Q/2πLε0 ln(b/a)) = 2πLε0/ln(b/a)

The correct option is (A) C=ln(b/a)2πLϵ0.

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In an L-R-C series circuit, L=0.280 H and C=4.00 μF. The voltage amplitude of the source is 120 V.

part a.What is the resonance angular frequency of the circuit?

part b.When the source operates at the resonance angular frequency, the current amplitude in the circuit is 1.70 AA. What is the resistance RR of the resistor?

part c.At the resonance angular frequency, what are the peak voltage across the inductor?

part d.
At the resonance angular frequency, what are the peak voltage across the capacitor?

part e.At the resonance angular frequency, what are the peak voltage across the resistor?

Answers

a) The resonance angular frequency (

res

ω

res

​ ) of the L-R-C series circuit can be calculated using the formula:

res

=

1

ω

res

=

LC

​1

​Where:

res

ω

res

 is the resonance angular frequency.

L is the inductance of the circuit.

C is the capacitance of the circuit.

By substituting the given values of

=

0.280

H

L=0.280H and

=

4.00

F

C=4.00μF into the formula, you can calculate the resonance angular frequency.

b) When the source operates at the resonance angular frequency, the current amplitude (

I) in the circuit is given as 1.70 A. To find the resistance (

R) of the resistor, you can use Ohm's Law:

=

R=

I

V

, where

V is the voltage amplitude of the source.

c) At the resonance angular frequency, the peak voltage across the inductor (

L

V

L

) is equal to the peak voltage of the source. This is because at resonance, the inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel each other out, resulting in a maximum voltage across the inductor.

d) At the resonance angular frequency, the peak voltage across the capacitor (

C

V

C

) is also equal to the peak voltage of the source. This is because at resonance, the inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel each other out, resulting in a minimum voltage across the capacitor.

e) At the resonance angular frequency, the peak voltage across the resistor (

R

V

R

) can be calculated using Ohm's Law:

R

=

V

R

=I⋅R, where

I is the current amplitude in the circuit and

R is the resistance of the resistor.

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53. Point charges 91 = 50 4C and 92 = -25 C are placed 1.0 m apart. What is the force on a third charge 93 = 20 xC placed midway between 1 and 42? 54. Where must q3 of the preceding problem be placed so that the net force on it is zero?

Answers

Given the following data: Charge 1 (q1) = +50 μC, Charge 2 (q2) = -25 μC, Charge 3 (q3) = +20 × 10^-6 C, distance between charges (d) = 1.0 m, and distance between charges 1 and 3 (x) = d/2 = 0.5 m.

The force of attraction between charge 1 and 3, F1,3, is equal to the force of repulsion between charge 3 and 2, F3,2. Their magnitudes are the same since they are due to the same charge q3, and they act along the line joining charges 1 and 3.

Using the formula for electric force, we find that F1,3 = F3,2 = (1/4πε₀) |q1| |q3| / x² = (9 × 10^9 Nm²C⁻²) × (50 × 10⁻⁶ C) × (20 × 10⁻⁶ C) / (0.5 m)² = 1.8 N.

The electric force on charge 3 due to the combination of charge 1 and charge 2, F3,1, is given by F3,1 = (1/4πε₀) |q1| |q3| / (d/2)² = (1/4πε₀) |q2| |q3| / (d/2)² = (9 × 10^9 Nm²C⁻²) × (50 × 10⁻⁶ C) × (20 × 10⁻⁶ C) / (1 m)² = 0.45 N.

The net force on charge 3, F3, is the vector sum of F3,1 and F3,2. In this case, F3,2 > F3,1, so the direction of F3 is from charge 3 towards charge 2, with a magnitude of 0.675 N.

To find the position of charge 3 where the net force is zero, we consider the forces F1,3 and F3,2 acting on charge 3. Setting them equal, we get (1/4πε₀) |q1| |q3| / x² = (1/4πε₀) |q2| |q3| / (d-x)².

Simplifying the equation, we find x² = 2(d-x)², which can be further simplified to 2x² - 4dx + d² = 0. Using the quadratic formula, x = [4d ± √(16d² - 8d²)] / 4 = [d ± √3d / 2].

Therefore, the position of charge 3 should be x = 0.634 d from charge 1.

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A container holds a liquid at 66°C bulk temperature, and convects heat to a wall with an external wall temperature of 25°Clf the surface heat transfer coefficient is 5 W/m²K Calculate the heat transfer per m² and state the principles and theories used to produce this calculation.

Answers

The heat transfer per m² is 205 Watts using the principles of convective heat transfer and the given parameters.

Convective heat transfer occurs when a fluid, in this case, the liquid in the container, transfers heat to a solid surface, the wall. The rate of heat transfer is influenced by the temperature difference between the fluid and the wall, as well as the surface heat transfer coefficient.

In this case, the bulk temperature of the liquid is given as 66°C, while the external wall temperature is 25°C. To calculate the temperature difference, we subtract the wall temperature from the bulk temperature: 66°C - 25°C = 41°C.

The surface heat transfer coefficient is provided as 5 W/m²K, which represents the rate at which heat is transferred between the fluid and the wall per unit area and per degree of temperature difference.

To calculate the heat transfer per m², we multiply the temperature difference (41°C) by the surface heat transfer coefficient (5 W/m²K):

Heat transfer per m² = 41°C × 5 W/m²K = 205 W/m²

Therefore, the heat transfer per m² in this scenario is 205 Watts per square meter.

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which of the following most clearly distinguishes asteroids and comets from planets?

Unlike planets, asteroids and comets do not orbit the Sun.
Asteroids and comets are made of different materials than any planets.
Asteroids and comets are only found at much greater distances from the Sun than planets.
Asteroids and comets are much smaller than planets.

Answers

The option that most clearly distinguishes asteroids and comets from planets is that asteroids and comets are much smaller than planets.

The asteroids and comets are significantly different from the planets in the solar system. They are significantly smaller and made of different substances than planets. Asteroids and comets are minor bodies in the solar system, while planets are the central and most substantial bodies in the solar system. These two features set planets apart from asteroids and comets in the following way.

Asteroids are small, rocky bodies that orbit the sun. Comets, on the other hand, are small, icy bodies that orbit the sun. In contrast, planets are large, gaseous, or rocky bodies that orbit the sun and have cleared their orbital paths of all other debris. They are held together by their gravitational force and have atmospheres, although some planets' atmospheres are tenuous.

Therefore, Planets are relatively large, while asteroids and comets are much smaller.

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Phase scintillation is a much larger concern than amplitude scintillation for radars at high latitudes. True False

Answers

The statement given "Phase scintillation is a much larger concern than amplitude scintillation for radars at high latitudes" is a True. Scintillation is a type of effect that is experienced by signals, particularly in GPS signals.

This effect occurs when the signal path is affected by turbulence in the ionosphere, causing the signal to become unpredictable and erratic. Scintillation affects the amplitude and phase of the signal. As the ionosphere is most turbulent at high latitudes, it is of particular concern to radars operating in those regions.

Phase scintillation is a more significant concern than amplitude scintillation for radars at high latitudes. This is because phase scintillation affects the carrier phase of the signal, resulting in a loss of coherence. This causes the radar to lose track of the signal, resulting in a loss of position and navigation accuracy. As a result, phase scintillation is of greater concern than amplitude scintillation for radars operating at high latitudes, where the ionosphere is most turbulent. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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What is the purpose of this lab? To verify the resultant for a set of vectors both graphically and algebra To use a force table to determine the equilibrant for a set of vectors verify the equilibrant for a set of vectors, both graphically and algebraically. A,B, and C are the purpose of this lab. Which is the correct process of experimentally obtaining the resultant and equilibriant on the Table force experiment? Both A and B are possible Both the resultant and the equivalent are measured simultaneously. The resultant is measured first, and the equivalent The equilibriant is measured first, and then the resultant Which is the correct process of the graphical method of obtaining the resultant and equilibriant vectors? The equivalent is measured first, and then the resultant All of the above are possible Both the resultant and the equivalent are measured simultaneously. The resultant is measured first, and then the equilibriant Which are the methods that are used in this experiment to obtain the resultant and equilibriant vectors? Experimental and graphical methodes Experimental, graphical, and analytical methods Graphical, and analytical methodes Experimental and analytical methodes Which graph does show the correct resultant of these 3 vectors? All of the graphs

Answers

The purpose of this lab is to verify the resultant and equilibrant of a set of vectors through graphical and algebraic methods. Both the experimental and graphical methods are used to obtain the resultant and equilibrant vectors in this experiment.

The purpose of this lab is to verify the resultant and equilibrant of a set of vectors both graphically and algebraically. In the force table experiment, the equilibrant is determined using the force table to achieve equilibrium for a set of vectors. The correct process of experimentally obtaining the resultant and equilibrant on the force table involves measuring both the resultant and the equilibrant simultaneously, allowing for a comprehensive understanding of the vectors' balance. Additionally, in the graphical method, the correct process to obtain the resultant and equilibrant vectors involves measuring the resultant first and then the equilibrant. However, it is important to note that all of the mentioned processes and methods are possible in this experiment, providing flexibility in the approach.

To obtain the resultant and equilibrant vectors, various methods are employed in this experiment. These methods include the experimental method, where measurements are taken using the force table and equipment; the graphical method, where vector diagrams are constructed to visually represent the vectors and their resultant; and the analytical method, which involves mathematical calculations to determine the magnitudes and directions of the vectors. By utilizing these different methods, students can gain a comprehensive understanding of vector addition and equilibrium.

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13.9 A particle of mass 3m is located 2.00 m from a particle of mass m. (a) Where should you put a third mass M so that the net gravitational force on M due to the two masses is exactly zero? (b) Is the equilibrium of M at this point stable or unstable (i) for points along the line connect- ing m and 3m, and (ii) for points along the line passing through M and perpendicular to the line connecting m and 3m?

Answers

Given, Mass of particle 1 = 3m , Mass of particle 2 = m, Distance between particle 1 and 2, r = 2m. Let's find the position where third particle should be placed so that net gravitational force on M due to two particles is zero.

For the net force to be zero on third particle, the net gravitational force of the first two particles on third particle should be equal and opposite.

To achieve this, let's place the third particle at distance d from particle 1 and (2-d) from particle 2.

So, we can write:3mM/d^2 = mM/(2-d)^2 => 3m = (2-d)^2 => d = 2 - sqrt(3)m.

To find the stability of equilibrium of particle M, let's perform the partial differentiation of the gravitational potential energy w.r.t. displacement of M in x and y directions.

(a) Partial differentiation w.r.t. displacement of M in x-direction.

For displacement of M in x direction, the net force equation is given by:F(x) = -dU/dx = -[G3mM/x^2 - GmM/(2-x)^2].

Differentiating w.r.t. x, we get:F'(x) = G3mM(2x)/x^4 - GmM(2(2-x))/ (2-x)^4.

The equilibrium is stable if F''(x) > 0 or concave upwards or the second derivative is positive.F''(x) = 6GmM/(2-x)^5 + 6G3mM/x^5.

So, we can say that the equilibrium is stable if dU/dx is minimum i.e. F'(x) = 0.

(b) Partial differentiation w.r.t. displacement of M in y-direction.

For displacement of M in y direction, the net force equation is given by:F(y) = -dU/dy = -[G3mM/y^2 - GmM/(2-y)^2].

Differentiating w.r.t. y, we get:F'(y) = G3mM(2y)/y^4 - GmM(2(2-y))/ (2-y)^4.

The equilibrium is stable if F''(y) > 0 or concave upwards or the second derivative is positive.F''(y) = 6GmM/(2-y)^5 + 6G3mM/y^5.

So, we can say that the equilibrium is stable if dU/dy is minimum i.e. F'(y) = 0.The equilibrium of M is stable along the line connecting m and 3m as the second derivative of dU/dx and dU/dy is positive.

The equilibrium of M is unstable for points along the line passing through M and perpendicular to the line connecting m and 3m as the second derivative of dU/dx and dU/dy is negative.

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What must be the radius (in cm) of a disk of mass is 21 kg, so
that it has the same rotational inertia as a solid sphere of mass
1g and radius 5 m? Give your answer in a whole number

Answers

The radius of the disk should be approximately 6.9 cm to have the same rotational inertia as the solid sphere. The rotational inertia (moment of inertia) of a solid sphere is given by the formula: I = (2/5) * m *[tex]r^2[/tex].

To find the radius of the disk that has the same rotational inertia as the solid sphere, we need to equate their rotational inertias. The rotational inertia (moment of inertia) of a solid sphere is given by the formula:

I = (2/5) * m *[tex]r^2[/tex]

where I is the rotational inertia, m is the mass, and r is the radius of the sphere.

We are given that the mass of the solid sphere is 1 g, which is equal to 0.001 kg, and the radius is 5 m.

Now, let's find the rotational inertia of the solid sphere:

I_sphere = (2/5) * (0.001 kg) *[tex](5 m)^2[/tex]

= (2/5) * 0.001 kg * [tex]25 m^2[/tex]

= 0.01 kg * [tex]5 m^2[/tex]

= 0.05 kg * [tex]m^2[/tex]

To find the radius of the disk, we set its rotational inertia equal to the rotational inertia of the sphere:

I_disk = (1/2) * m_disk * r_disk^2

We are given that the mass of the disk is 21 kg, so the equation becomes:

0.05 kg * m^2 = (1/2) * (21 kg) * (r_disk)^2

Simplifying the equation, we can solve for r_disk:

r_disk^2 = (0.05 kg *[tex]m^2[/tex]) / (1/2) * (21 kg)

r_disk^2 = (0.05 kg *[tex]m^2[/tex]) / 10.5 kg

r_disk^2 = 0.00476 kg * [tex]m^2[/tex] / kg

r_disk^2 = 0.00476 m^2

Taking the square root of both sides, we find:

r_disk = √0.00476 [tex]m^2[/tex]

r_disk ≈ 0.069 m

Converting the radius from meters to centimeters, we have:

r_disk ≈ 6.9 cm

Therefore, the radius of the disk should be approximately 6.9 cm to have the same rotational inertia as the solid sphere.

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What is the maximum kinetic energy of the beta particle emitted during the decay of 40K 19

(the daughter nucleus experiences negligible recoil)?

(a) 2.82 MeV (b) 4.79 MeV (c) 9.23 MeV (d) 1.31 MeV (e) 5.67 MeV

Answers

The maximum kinetic energy of the beta particle emitted during the decay of 40K is 1.31 MeV (option (d)).

In beta decay, a neutron in the nucleus transforms into a proton, and a beta particle (electron or positron) is emitted. The maximum kinetic energy of the beta particle can be determined by considering the energy released in the decay and the energy distribution between the beta particle and the daughter nucleus.

The decay of 40K involves the emission of a beta particle. The daughter nucleus, 40Ca, experiences negligible recoil due to its significantly larger mass compared to the beta particle. Therefore, we can assume that the released energy is entirely carried by the beta particle.

The decay energy of 40K is approximately 1.31 MeV. This means that the maximum kinetic energy of the beta particle is equal to the decay energy, which is 1.31 MeV.

Hence, the maximum kinetic energy of the beta particle emitted during the decay of 40K is approximately 1.31 MeV (option (d)) as given in the choices provided.

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Choose the best answer to the following:

The metal detectors people walk through at airports operate via

(a) Ohm's law.

(b) Faraday's law.

(c) Coulomb's law.

(d) Newton's laws.

Answers

The metal detectors people walk through at airports operate via (b) Faraday's law.

The metal detector works on the principles of electromagnetism. Electromagnetic fields are used to detect metal.

The metal detector sends an electromagnetic field through a coil of wire in the metal detector. The electromagnetic field can easily pass through air and most non-metallic materials, but it is disrupted when it comes into contact with metal.

When the electromagnetic field is disrupted, a metal detector can recognize that metal is present. The metal detector also has a receiver coil, which is used to detect the interruption and alert the operator when metal is detected. Furthermore, the level of the disturbance determines the metal's conductivity, which can help identify the type of metal that is present. In this way, the metal detectors people walk through at airports operate via Faraday's law.

Therefore the correct answer is: (b) Faraday's law.

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a device that can detect the presence of electric charges

Answers

The device used to detect the presence of electric charges on the body is electroscope.

Electroscope along with other devices used to detect the presence and magnitude of electric charge are categorised as electrometers. It finds the potential difference between two points or electric field strength to estimate the results.

The common examples include gold leaf electroscope comprising metal rod and thin gold leaves. The seperation between the leaves in presence of electric charge is indicative of quantity of electric charge.

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Q4. When a light with certain intensity is incident on a surface, the ejected electrons have a maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV. If the intensity of light is decreased to half, calculate the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons. a

Answers

According to the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy (KE) of ejected electrons depends on the intensity of light incident on a surface. When the intensity of light is halved, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will also change.

The maximum kinetic energy (KE) of ejected electrons is given by the equation:

KE = hf - φ,

where h is Planck's constant, f is the frequency of the incident light, and φ is the work function of the material.

Since the intensity of light is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of the electric field, decreasing the intensity by half corresponds to reducing the amplitude by √2.

In the case of the maximum kinetic energy, the frequency of the incident light remains constant. Therefore, when the intensity is halved, the amplitude of the electric field is reduced by √2, resulting in the same change in the maximum kinetic energy.

Therefore, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will also be halved, resulting in 1 eV.

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What are the physical principles behind the action of the heat sinks? That is, how do they reduce the temperature of the hot side of the TEC? Select the correct answer(s), there may be more than one.

1. Radiation

2. Heat capacity

3. Thermal conduction

4. Convection

5. Latent heat

6. Phase transformation

Answers

The correct answer is Option 1, 3, and 4. The physical principles behind the action of the heat sinks are Radiation, Thermal conduction, Convection.

The physical principles behind the action of heat sinks involve multiple mechanisms working together to reduce the temperature of the hot side of a Thermoelectric Cooler (TEC).

The correct answers among the given options are:

Thermal conduction: Heat sinks are designed with materials that have high thermal conductivity, such as metals like aluminum or copper.

They are in direct contact with the hot side of the TEC, allowing for efficient transfer of heat through conduction.

Convection: Heat sinks are often designed with fins or other structures that increase the surface area.

This promotes convection, where the surrounding air flows over the heat sink, carrying away heat through the process of forced or natural convection.

Radiation: Although not as significant as conduction and convection, heat sinks also emit thermal radiation.

This occurs in the form of infrared radiation, allowing for additional heat dissipation.

The remaining options, heat capacity, latent heat, and phase transformation, are not directly related to the action of heat sinks in reducing temperature.

Heat capacity refers to the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a substance, while latent heat and phase transformation relate to the energy absorbed or released during changes of state, such as melting or boiling.

In summary, the primary mechanisms involved in reducing the temperature of the hot side of a TEC using heat sinks are thermal conduction, convection, and radiation.

Therefore, The correct answer is Option 1, 3, and 4.

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A block is thrown into the air with a speed of 30m/s at an angle of 50 degrees above the horizontal. Neglect air drag in this question.

a. Make a rough sketch of the motion of the block assuming it is thrown on level ground.

b. draw the initial velocity vector for the block. Indicate the horizontal and vertical component of the initial velocity of the block.

c. fins the value of the horizontal component of the initial velocity of the block.

d. find the value of the vertical component of the initial velocity of the block

e, how long with it take is time for the block to reach maximum hight?

f. how long in time will it take the block tor return to the hight from which it was thrown?

g. how far willl the block have traveled horizontally by the time it reaches its initial hight? in other words, what is its range?

h. What is the maximum height that the block reaches?

Answers

a. Curved trajectory.

b. Initial velocity vector with horizontal (Vx) and vertical (Vy) components. c. Vx = V * cos(50°).

d. Vy = V * sin(50°).

e. t = Vy / g.

f. 2t.

g. R = Vx * t.

h. H = (V[tex]y^2[/tex]) / (2 * g).

a. The rough sketch of the motion of the block would show a curved trajectory, starting at ground level, rising upwards, reaching a maximum height, and then falling back to the ground.

b. The initial velocity vector can be drawn as an arrow at an angle of 50 degrees above the horizontal. The horizontal component of the initial velocity is Vx = V * cos(50°), and the vertical component is Vy = V * sin(50°).

c. To find the value of the horizontal component of the initial velocity, we can calculate Vx = V * cos(50°) using the given speed (V = 30 m/s) and angle (50 degrees).

d. To find the value of the vertical component of the initial velocity, we can calculate Vy = V * sin(50°) using the given speed (V = 30 m/s) and angle (50 degrees).

e. The time it takes for the block to reach maximum height can be calculated using the formula: t = Vy / g, where g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/[tex]s^2[/tex]).

f. The time it takes for the block to return to the height from which it was thrown can be calculated as twice the time taken to reach maximum height: 2t.

g. The horizontal distance traveled by the block, also known as the range, can be calculated using the formula: R = Vx * t, where Vx is the horizontal component of the initial velocity and t is the total time of flight.

h. The maximum height that the block reaches can be determined using the formula: H = (V[tex]y^2[/tex]) / (2 * g), where Vy is the vertical component of the initial velocity and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Note: For precise numerical calculations, the given speed and angle values would need to be provided.

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what evidence can you cite that galactic cannibalism really happens

Answers

Galactic cannibalism, also known as galactic mergers or galactic interactions, occurs when one galaxy combines with or absorbs material from another galaxy. There is abundant observational evidence supporting the existence of galactic cannibalism.

Here are some key pieces of evidence:

   Galaxy collisions have been observed, revealing various stages of merging or interaction between galaxies. These observations include distorted shapes, tidal tails, bridges of stars and gas connecting interacting galaxies, and clear signs of galactic collisions.    Computer simulations based on our understanding of gravitational interactions and galaxy dynamics can replicate the features observed in interacting galaxies. These simulations provide additional evidence that galactic cannibalism is a natural outcome of gravitational interactions between galaxies.    Stellar and gas streams are formed when galaxies merge, leading to the gravitational forces stripping stars and gas from the involved galaxies. These stripped materials create elongated streams or tidal tails that can be observed, providing strong evidence of past or ongoing galactic interactions.    Galaxy mergers can trigger intense bursts of star formation and activate supermassive black holes at the centers of galaxies, known as active galactic nuclei (AGN). The presence of AGN and starburst activity in interacting galaxies serves as evidence for the energetic effects of galactic cannibalism.    The distribution and characteristics of dwarf galaxies, which are smaller companion galaxies often found near larger galaxies, offer insights into galactic cannibalism. The presence of dwarf galaxies around larger galaxies aligns with the idea that they were captured or absorbed during galactic interactions.

These lines of evidence, supported by numerous observational studies and theoretical models, strongly indicate the occurrence of galactic cannibalism. They contribute to our understanding of the dynamics involved in the evolution of galaxies.

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Why is aluminum used on spacecraft for radiation shielding instead of lead? Name another material that would be a good choice for spacecraft shielding and explain why you chose it.

Answers

Aluminum is used on spacecraft for radiation shielding instead of lead due to its lighter weight and better mechanical properties.

When it comes to radiation shielding in spacecraft, weight is a crucial factor as it affects the overall mass of the vehicle. Aluminum offers a significant advantage over lead in terms of weight. Aluminum has a lower density compared to lead, which means that it can provide effective shielding while adding less weight to the spacecraft. This is especially important for space missions where every kilogram of weight saved can have a significant impact on the mission's cost and performance.

Additionally, aluminum possesses favorable mechanical properties that make it suitable for spacecraft applications. It is strong, durable, and exhibits good resistance to corrosion. These properties are essential for withstanding the harsh conditions of space and ensuring the structural integrity of the spacecraft.

Another material that could be a good choice for spacecraft shielding is polyethylene. Polyethylene is a lightweight plastic material that has excellent radiation shielding properties. It is commonly used in nuclear power plants and medical facilities for radiation protection. Polyethylene has high hydrogen content, which makes it effective at absorbing and attenuating ionizing radiation. Its lightweight nature and ease of fabrication make it an attractive option for spacecraft shielding, providing a good balance between radiation protection and weight efficiency.

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A photoelectric effect experiment is conducted to understand the relationship between maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons from zinc plate with stopping potential of the current. The work function for zinc is 4.29eV. i. Find the threshold wavelength for zinc. ii. What is the lowest frequency of light incident on zinc plate that releases photoelectrons from its surface? iii. If photons energy of 5.51eV are incident on zinc, what stopping potential would be required to avoid photoelectric effect from occurring?

Answers

The photons with an energy of 5.51 eV are incident on zinc, we can calculate the stopping potential required to avoid the photoelectric effect from occurring.

(i) To find the threshold wavelength for zinc, we can use the equation:

[tex]λthreshold = c / νthreshold[/tex]

Where λthreshold is the threshold wavelength, c is the speed of light (approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s), and νthreshold is the threshold frequency calculated in part (i).

[tex]λthreshold = (3 x 10^8 m/s) / (7.98 x 10^14 s^-1)λthreshold ≈ 375.9 nm[/tex]

Therefore, the threshold wavelength for zinc is approximately 375.9 nm.

(ii) The lowest frequency of light incident on the zinc plate that releases photoelectrons from its surface is the same as the threshold frequency calculated in

Therefore, the lowest frequency of light incident on the zinc plate is 7.98 x 10^14 s^-1.

Therefore, the stopping potential required to avoid the photoelectric effect from occurring is approximately 0.48 V.

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Which of the following is Newton's First Law of Motion Every object continues in its state of rest, or of uniform velocity in a straight line, as long as no net force acts on it. A body at rest will stay at rest unless there is friction. The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it, and is inversely proportional to its mass. Force must be exerted in a direction opposite the intial velocity. Newton's second law of motions states Every object continues in its state of rest, or of uniform velocity in a straight line, as long as no net force acts on it. The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it. and is inversely proportional to its mass. The direction of the acceleration is in the direction of the net force acting on the object. A body at rest will stay at rest unless acted upon by an outside force. Projectile motion follows a parabolic path. Newton's third law of motion is Whenever one object exerts a force on a second object, the second exerts an equal force in the opposite direction on the first. An object at rest will stay at rest unless acted upon by an outside force. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction The moon orbits the earth in an elliptical shaped orbit The gravitional force may be expressed as (neglecting subscripts and vector arrows) F=mg E=mc

2 F=vt F=ab When solving questions involving Newton's laws, before identifying the equations you will use, it is a good idea to first draw an accurate picture or diagram of the situation round off any values given to two significant figures create four indendent coordinate systems for problem solving delete the units after any values given so you can work with the pure numbers When a problem involves a cord, it is good to keep in mind that cords can pull but can't push cords can push and pull cords can push but can't pull cords can neither push nor pull In physics, for a particular object, the weight and mass values are not always the same the weight and mass values are always the same the weight is always more than the mass the mass is always more than the weight

Answers

Newton's First Law of Motion states that every object continues in its state of rest, or of uniform velocity in a straight line, as long as no net force acts on it. This means that if an object is at rest, it will remain at rest unless a force is applied to it. Similarly, if an object is already in motion at a constant speed and direction, it will continue to move in that manner unless a force is exerted on it. In the absence of any external forces, an object will maintain its current state of motion.

Newton's First Law of Motion, often referred to as the law of inertia, describes the behavior of objects when no external forces are acting on them. It states that an object will either remain at rest or continue to move in a straight line at a constant speed if the net force acting on it is zero. This law helps us understand why objects tend to resist changes in their motion.

The first part of the law states that an object at rest will stay at rest unless acted upon by a force. This means that if there are no external forces acting on an object initially at rest, it will remain motionless. For example, if a book is placed on a table, it will stay there until someone or something exerts a force on it.

The second part of the law states that an object in motion will continue moving in a straight line at a constant velocity unless acted upon by a force. This means that if there are no external forces acting on a moving object, it will continue moving with the same speed and direction. For instance, if you slide a hockey puck on an ice rink with no friction, it will keep moving in a straight line until it encounters a force like friction or another object.

Newton's First Law of Motion is fundamental in understanding the behavior of objects in the absence of external forces. It provides the foundation for understanding the concept of inertia and how objects resist changes in their state of motion.

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Partial Dislocations in fcc Metals - (a) Calculate the equilibrium spacing of the Shockley partials in Cu due to the dissociation of a b=(110) screw dislocation (y = 40mJ/m²). (b) Determine the radius of curvature at an extended node in Cu (also using y = 40mJ/m²). (c) Which of the two measurements - i.e., the dissociation determined in part (a) or the radius of curvature calculated in part (b)- is easier to determine using transmission electron microscopy? Justify your answer.

Answers

(a) In order to determine the equilibrium spacing of the Shockley partials in Cu due to the dissociation of a b = (110) screw dislocation, we use the following formula:

y = Gb² / 2π (1 - ν) d²where:y = 40 mJ/m² = 0.04 J/m²G = 81.1 GPa for CuB = Burgers vector for Cu = 0.256 nmν = Poisson’s ratio for Cu = 0.34

We substitute the values given:

y = (81.1 × 10⁹ Pa) (0.256 × 10⁻⁹ m)² / (2π × (1 – 0.34)) d²

We rearrange the formula to solve for d:

d² = (81.1 × 10⁹ Pa) (0.256 × 10⁻⁹ m)² / (2π × (1 – 0.34) × 0.04 J/m²)

We evaluate this expression:d = 0.157 nm(b) In order to determine the radius of curvature at an extended node in Cu using

y = 40 mJ/m²

we use the following formula:

R = E² / (yS)where:E = 140 GPa for CuS = 0.0947 × 10⁻¹² m² for Cu (from lecture notes)

We substitute the values given:

R = (140 × 10⁹ Pa)² / (0.04 J/m²) (0.0947 × 10⁻¹² m²

)We evaluate this expression:R = 4.64 mm

The radius of curvature calculated in part (b) is easier to determine using transmission electron microscopy. This is because the radius of curvature can be measured directly from TEM micrographs, whereas the dissociation determined in part (a) cannot be directly observed by TEM. In order to observe partial dislocations in TEM, the sample must be thin enough to be electron transparent, and the orientation of the partials must be such that they can be imaged with sufficient contrast. Therefore, determining the equilibrium spacing of Shockley partials in Cu due to the dissociation of a b = (110) screw dislocation is more difficult than determining the radius of curvature at an extended node in Cu.

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A mass of 4kg is attached to a spring with a spring constant of k = 169kg/s². It is then stretched 10cm from the spring-mass equilibrium and set to oscillating with an initial velocity of 130cm/s. Assuming it oscillates without damping, the frequency is: Select one:
a. 5.5
b. 6.5
c. 4.5
d. 3.5

Answers

The frequency of the oscillating mass-spring system is approximately 0.519 Hz. None of the given options (a, b, c, d) match this value, so none of them are correct.

The frequency of an oscillating mass-spring system can be determined using the formula:

f = (1 / 2π) √(k / m)

Where f is the frequency, k is the spring constant, and m is the mass of the object attached to the spring.

In this case, the mass (m) is 4 kg and the spring constant (k) is 169 kg/s². To find the frequency, we substitute these values into the formula:

f = (1 / 2π) √(169 kg/s² / 4 kg)

f = (1 / 2π) √(42.25 / 4)

f = (1 / 2π) √(10.5625)

f ≈ (1 / 2π) * 3.25

f ≈ 1.63 / π

Using an approximation of π ≈ 3.14, we can calculate the approximate value of the frequency:

f ≈ 1.63 / 3.14 ≈ 0.519

Therefore, the frequency of the oscillating mass-spring system is approximately 0.519 Hz. None of the given options (a, b, c, d) match this value, so none of them are correct.

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A projectile is fired with a speed of 15m/s at an angle of elevation of 30 degrees above the horizontal.

a) At what height will it strike a vertical wall distant 18m horizontally from the gun?

b) Find the magnitude and direction of its velocity when it strikes the wall.

Answers

The projectile will strike the wall at a height of 2.32 m. The magnitude of the projectile's velocity, when it strikes the wall, is 13.2 m/s, and the direction of the projectile's velocity when it strikes the wall is 45 degrees below the horizontal.

(a) The projectile will strike the wall at a height of 2.32 m.

The horizontal component of the projectile's velocity is:

v_x = v * cos(30 degrees) = 15 * 0.866 = 13.0 m/s

The time it takes the projectile to travel 18 m horizontally is:

t = d / v_x = 18 / 13.0 = 1.38 s

The vertical component of the projectile's velocity is:

v_y = v * sin(30 degrees) = 15 * 0.5 = 7.5 m/s

The acceleration of the projectile is the acceleration due to gravity, which is -9.8 m/s^2. The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is downward.

The vertical displacement of the projectile is:

y = v_y * t + 0.5 * a * t^2 = 7.5 * 1.38 - 4.9 * 1.38^2 = 2.32 m

Therefore, the projectile will strike the wall at a height of 2.32 m.

(b) Find the magnitude and direction of its velocity when it strikes the wall.

The magnitude of the projectile's velocity, when it strikes the wall, is 13.2 m/s.

The direction of the projectile's velocity, when it strikes the wall, is 45 degrees below the horizontal.

The velocity vector can be broken down into its horizontal and vertical components. The horizontal component is 13.0 m/s, and the vertical component is 7.5 m/s. The magnitude of the velocity vector is:

v = sqrt(v_x^2 + v_y^2) = sqrt(13.0^2 + 7.5^2) = 13.2 m/s

The direction of the velocity vector is:

theta = arctan(v_y / v_x) = arctan(7.5 / 13.0) = 45 degrees below the horizontal

Therefore, the magnitude of the projectile's velocity when it strikes the wall is 13.2 m/s, and the direction of the projectile's velocity when it strikes the wall is 45 degrees below the horizontal.

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The random variable X can assume the values 2, 4 and 6. P(X=2) = 0.3 and P(X=4) = 0.4.a) Determine the probability that X assumes the value 6 so that the requirement for a probability function is met.b) Calculate the expected value of X.c) Calculate the variance of X.d) The random variable Y can be described as Y=(31+2) / 4, where X1 and X2 are independent random variables withthe same distribution as described in the a) task. What values can Y take?e) Determine the expected value and standard deviation of Y. All of the following are inputs to the Control Schedule process EXCEPT: Select one: a. Work performance data b. Scheduling tool. c. Modeling techniques. d. Performance reviews Barnaby wants to buy a car from a trustworthy German company and has 100,000 to do so. Barnaby likes having money, but hates destroying the environment. A car that causes 0% destruction of the environment costs 100,000 (leaving Barnaby with no money.) 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The net dividend of $18,000, after 10% withholding tax in Country Y was used to settle an invoice owing by BPL to its supplier in Country Y on 6 March 2021. BPL's financial year ends on 31 July.Explain if the foreign dividend is received in Singapore and whether BPL will be subject to Singapore tax on the said income in the relevant Year of Assessment. TRUE / FALSE.COLLUSION IS AN AGREEMENT AMONG SUPPLIERS TO SET THE PRICE OF A PRODUCT OR THE QUANTITIES EACH WILL PRODUCE. True False The market value of equity is $1000 and of debt is $600, thecost of debt is 3.9%, beta equity is 1.2, risk- free is 3%, marketreturn is 9%, and the tax rate is 30%, calculate the after-taxWACC. what structures in the cell release energy stored in food Let A(t)= 3000e^0.04tbe the balance in a savings account after t years. How much money was originally deposited? How much money would you save if you earned $50,000 a year and maxed your contribution to get the full benefit? Which of the following is most likely a correct statement in regards to stock valuation models? 1. The lower the expected dividends and higher the discount rate, the higher the value of the stock today, with all else being constant II. The lower the required return on the stock, the lower the projected dividends for the stock, with all else being constant. III. The higher the expected growth rate of dividends, the higher the value of the stock I onty 11 and 111 11 only None of the above Identify and discuss examples of how BP might base itsstrategies on information from the general environment (6 marks,300 words). Berful Industries reports net income of $50,000. Included in its income statement were depreciation expense of $4,000 and amortization expense of $600. Equipment was sold for $3,000cash, at a gain of $200. The firm purchased $9,000 in new equipment during the year, and borrowed $50,000 cash on a long-term note payable. Accounts receivable increased by $6,800, inventories decreased by $3,800, prepaid expenses decreased by $400, accounts payable increased by $9,000, and other accrued liabilities decreased by $900. Calculate net cash flow from operating activities under US GAAP, using the indirect method, and record your answer here. $___ A study is to be conducted to estimate the proportion of all college students who do not have a sibling. How many college ufudentis need in be contacted in order to estimate this proportion with 95% confidence to within a 2.00% margin of error? Aistume it is reasonable te use 0.56 as a prior ostimate in this calculation. As the nebula begins to shrink and spin, what else does it begin to do? Southland Company is preparing a cash budget for August. The compary has $7,800 cash at the begirning of August und anticipates $122.400 in cash receipts and $135,300 in cash payments during August. Southland Company wants to maintain a minimumi cash balance of \$10,000. The preliminary cash balance at the end of August before any loan activity is Multiple Choice a $14,900 b $14,200 c $27,800 d ($12.900) e $4,900 The Cobbler sells its inventory in 26 days on average. Their customers generally charge their purchases on a privately branded charge card with payment being received in 34 days. The company takes 39 days on average to pay for its inventory. Given this information, what is the length of the companys cash cycle?Multiple Choice24 days60 days21 days99 days31 days After Misha finishes her Bachelor of Commerce degree (in Australia) she travels to the UK to work as an accountant for three years. During that time, she rents a flat and makes many friends. Her UK salary is paid into a UK bank account. At the end of the three-year period, she has saved enough money to travel. Misha then spends a year travelling around Europe and a year travelling around North America. During that time, she sells her shares in BHP and makes a capital gain of $1 million. She is very happy because she has been told by a friend that she will not have to pay income tax on that capital gain. Her income tax would be approximately $240,000. At the end of her travels, she returns to Australia. Required Discuss the residency of Misha. Is she liable to pay income tax on the capital gain? Your answer should focus on Misha's residence and liability to pay tax in Australia. Test Bank 11.32 What does the internal rate of return compare? Selected answer will be automatically saved. For keyboard navisation, press upjdown arrow keys to seiect an answer. a the NPV of one project to the NPB of another project b the return of one project to the weighted average cost of capital c the return of one project to the PI index d the lifespan of one project to another project Project A has a net present value of $10,500, while project B bas a net present value of $25,000. The company can select only one project. Which project should it select, and why? Selected answer will be autematically saved. For keyboard runigation, press ug, fowen arrow keys fo select an answer. a project A because it has a higher NPV than project B b project B because it has a higher NPV than project A c project A because it has a lower NPV than project B d project B because it has a lower NPV than project A what is the angular frequency of the oscillating magnet? Amount of inventories recognised as an expense does NOT need to be disclosed in the financialstatements T/F