The average book value of the bond is $8,072.50.
The average income per interest payment interval is $312.60.
The approximate yield rate is approximately 8.02%.
To calculate the average book value, we need to consider the purchase price of the bond, the number of bonds owned, and the par value of the bond. The purchase price is given as 97.5% of the par value, so the average book value is calculated as $8,300 × 97.5% = $8,072.50.
The average income per interest payment interval is determined by dividing the total coupon payments received during the bond's lifetime by the number of interest payment intervals. The bond has a 7.8% coupon rate, and since it pays semi-annual coupons, the annual coupon payment is $8,300 × 7.8% = $645.60. Therefore, the average income per interest payment interval is $645.60 ÷ 2 = $312.60.
The approximate yield rate is the effective interest rate earned on the bond. In this case, we can calculate it by using the formula:
Approximate Yield Rate = (Annual Interest Payments + (Par Value - Purchase Price) ÷ Years to Maturity) ÷ Average Book Value
The annual interest payments are $8,300 × 7.8% = $645.60, the par value is $8,300, the purchase price is $8,300 × 97.5% = $8,092.50, and the years to maturity is 11. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
Approximate Yield Rate = ($645.60 + ($8,300 - $8,092.50) ÷ 11) ÷ $8,072.50 = 8.02%
Therefore, the approximate yield rate is approximately 8.02%. This rate represents the return on investment for the bond, taking into account both the coupon payments and the capital gain or loss from the purchase price to the par value.
Learn more about bond here:
https://brainly.com/question/31994049
#SPJ11
identify which of the following activities are involved in the preparation of the trial balance section of the worksheet
The activities involved in the preparation of the trial balance section of the worksheet- 2) Enter the general ledger account names, 3) Transfer the general ledger account balances to the Debit and Credit columns,5) Total the columns to prove the trial balance is in balance
Activity 2 - Enter the general ledger account names: This activity involves listing all the general ledger accounts in the trial balance section of the worksheet. The general ledger accounts are usually listed in the same order as they appear in the general ledger. This activity ensures that all general ledger accounts are included in the trial balance.
Activity 3 - Transfer the general ledger account balances to the Debit and Credit columns: This activity involves taking the balance of each general ledger account and entering it in the appropriate column of the trial balance (either debit or credit). If a general ledger account has a debit balance, its balance is entered in the Debit column, and if it has a credit balance, its balance is entered in the Credit column. This activity ensures that the trial balance accurately reflects the balances of all the accounts in the general ledger.
Activity 5 - Total the columns to prove the trial balance is in balance: This activity involves adding up the Debit and Credit columns of the trial balance to ensure that they are equal. If the total of the Debit column equals the total of the Credit column, then the trial balance is said to be in balance. This activity ensures that the accounting equation (Assets = Liabilities + Equity) is maintained and that the accounting records are accurate.
Activity 1 – Placing a single rule under each trial balance column total to show that the work is complete – is not an activity involved in the preparation of the trial balance section of the worksheet.
Activity 4 – Computing and entering running balances after each entry – is not an activity involved in the preparation of the trial balance section of the worksheet. Running balances are computed and entered in the Balance column of the ledger accounts, not the trial balance section of the worksheet.
The complete question is
Identify which of the following activities are involved in the preparation of the trial balance section of the worksheet
1)place a single rule under each trial balance column total to show that the work is complete
2)enter the general ledger account names
3)transfer the general ledger account balances to the Debit and Credit columns
4)compute and enter running balances after each entry
5)total the columns to prove the trial balance is in balance
To know more about trial balance here
https://brainly.com/question/31039973
#SPJ4
True/False
An internal auditor is a professional staff member of the independent auditing firm.
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires companies providing auditing services of a companies financial statements to also provide an audit of internal control.
The internal auditor works for the organization and is an employee of the organization. An internal auditor is not an employee of the independent auditing firm but rather works within the organization to examine and evaluate the company's financial and operational activities.
Thus the statement "An internal auditor is a professional staff member of the independent auditing firm" is false.
They are responsible for ensuring that the company's policies and procedures are followed, identifying potential risks and weaknesses in the company's operations, and providing recommendations for improvement.
The statement "The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires companies providing auditing services of a companies financial statements to also provide an audit of internal control" is true.
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) was enacted in response to the accounting scandals of the early 2000s, such as Enron and WorldCom. The act aims to improve corporate governance and financial reporting by requiring companies to establish internal controls over financial reporting. SOX requires public companies to have an independent auditor perform an audit of the company's internal control over financial reporting in addition to the audit of the company's financial statements.
To know more about Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, click here
brainly.com/question/30880381
#SPJ11
A super market has a single cashier. During the peak hours, customers arrive at a rate of 20 customers per hour. The average number of
customers that can be processed by the cashier is 24 per hour. Calculate
(a) Probability that cashier is idle.
(b) Average number of customers queueing system.
The probability that the cashier is idle is 20% and the average number of customers queueing system is 4.
(a) Probability that cashier is idle
The probability that the cashier is idle is calculated by the following formula:
P(idle) = 1 - arrival rate / service rate
In this case, the arrival rate is 20 customers per hour and the service rate is 24 customers per hour. So, the probability that the cashier is idle is:
P(idle) = 1 - 20 / 24 = 20%
(b) Average number of customers queueing system
The average number of customers queueing system is calculated by the following formula:
Lq = arrival rate * service rate / (service rate - arrival rate)
In this case, the arrival rate is 20 customers per hour and the service rate is 24 customers per hour. So, the average number of customers queueing system is:
Lq = 20 * 24 / (24 - 20) = 4
Therefore, the probability that the cashier is idle is 20% and the average number of customers queueing system is 4.
To learn more about arrival rate: https://brainly.com/question/30036732
#SPJ11
You are a management accountant in a company called Plasmid that manufactures pencils, you have been given the following results from the variance report for the month. At the beginning of the month the supplier for raisin used to make pencils increased price for the material to meet increasing demand external specialists’ engineers were also hired which increased cost. Production was however slower because new employees needed to be accustomed production processes. The was also a higher than anticipated increase in machine breakdown for the month which meant the company had to hire machinery for the month. Finally, the quality of wood used for the pencils this month was poor which meant that more raising within the mix was used.
Raw materials Variances
Variance Rand Value Price R15,660A Usage R15,618A
Fixed production Overhead Variances
Variance Rand Value Expenditure 15,873A
Efficiency 7,984A
Capacity 3735F
a) Explain what each of the above variances mean, suggest reasons for each if the above variance.
Price Variance:
This variance measures the difference between the actual price paid for raw materials and the standard price. It can be caused by changes in supplier prices or negotiated contracts.
Usage Variance:
This variance reflects the difference between the actual quantity of raw materials used and the standard quantity. It can occur due to changes in production processes, employee training, or material wastage. The poor quality of wood might result in more raisin being used, leading to a negative usage variance.
Mix Variance:
The mix variance represents the difference between the actual mix of raw materials used and the standard mix. It arises when the proportions of different raw materials deviate from the standard. If the poor quality wood required a higher proportion of raisin, it could result in a negative mix variance.
Yield Variance:
The yield variance compares the actual yield or output achieved with the standard yield. It measures the efficiency of the production process and can be influenced by factors such as machine breakdowns or new employees needing time to adapt. If the production was slower due to new employees, it might result in a negative yield variance.
These variances provide insights into the factors affecting raw material costs and usage. However, to conduct a comprehensive analysis and derive meaningful conclusions, you would need to gather specific data about quantities, costs, standards, and production processes. This would allow for a more accurate assessment of the variances and their impact on Plasmid's operations and costs.
Learn more about raw materials here : brainly.com/question/30506076
#SPJ11
There are three other names that are sometimes used when
referring to the business market. List them and give an example of
each.
The three other names that are sometimes used when referring to the business market are B2B, Industrial Market, and Organizational Market.
B2B refers to transactions and relationships between businesses. It involves the exchange of products, services, or information between two or more companies. An example of B2B would be a manufacturing company purchasing raw materials from a supplier.
Industrial Market refers to the market segment composed of businesses that purchase goods and services for industrial purposes. This includes businesses in sectors such as manufacturing, construction, and utilities. For example, a construction company buying heavy machinery from an equipment manufacturer would be considered part of the industrial market.
Organizational Market encompasses all types of organizations that acquire goods and services to support their operations. This includes government agencies, educational institutions, and non-profit organizations. An example of the organizational market would be a hospital procuring medical equipment from a supplier.
Learn more about B2B, Industrial Market, and Organizational Market here-
brainly.com/question/28488896
#SPJ11
A 10-year, 6.25% semiannual coupon bond with a par value of $1000 of the Jay Wright Company may be called in four years at a call price of $1,060. The bond sells for $1,200. What is the bond’s yield to maturity?
The bond's YTM is found to be approximately 2.82% (rounded to two decimal places)
To calculate the bond's yield to maturity (YTM), we need to find the discount rate that equates the present value of the bond's cash flows to its current market price.
Given information:
- Coupon rate: 6.25% (semiannual payments)
- Par value: $1000
- Call price: $1060 (four years from now)
- Market price: $1200
To calculate the bond's YTM, we'll use a financial calculator or spreadsheet software.
First, let's calculate the present value of the bond's cash flows:
- Semiannual coupon payments: $1000 * 6.25% / 2 = $31.25
- Number of periods: 10 years * 2 (since coupons are paid semiannually) = 20 periods
Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet, we discount the coupon payments and the call price to their present values:
PV of coupon payments = $31.25 * [1 - 1/(1 + r)^20] / r
PV of call price = $1060 / (1 + r)^8 (since it is called in four years)
We sum up the present values of the coupon payments and the call price to get the bond's present value:
PV = PV of coupon payments + PV of call price
We need to find the discount rate (YTM) that makes the bond's present value equal to its market price ($1200). We can use trial and error or an iterative process to find the YTM.
Using this method, the bond's YTM is found to be approximately 2.82% (rounded to two decimal places).
To know more about market price, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31964955
#SPJ11
the idea of paying workers an efficiency wage is that
The concept of paying workers an efficiency wage suggests that offering higher wages than the market equilibrium can lead to increased productivity and overall efficiency within a company. This is the main idea behind the efficiency wage theory.
The efficiency wage theory posits that paying workers wages above the equilibrium level can have positive effects on productivity and worker performance.
According to this theory, when workers are offered higher wages, they are motivated to work harder and exhibit greater loyalty and commitment to their employer. This can result in reduced turnover rates, improved job satisfaction, and increased effort put into their tasks.
By offering higher wages, employers can attract and retain more skilled and talented workers, leading to a more efficient and productive workforce.
The efficiency wage theory suggests that investing in higher wages can be beneficial for both employees and employers in the long run.
To learn more about, Wages:-
https://brainly.com/question/27108725
#SPJ11
Several development economists have written that economic development process is about structural transformation.
i. With the help of a well labeled diagram (or diagrams) explain how the Lewis (1954) model explains development as structural transformation.
ii. State and justify what is true (relevant) in Lewis’s model for countries like Zambia that are in the process of developing.
iii. State and justify what is NOT true (relevant) in Lewis’s model for countries like Zambia that are in the process of developing.
i. The Lewis (1954) model explains development as structural transformation through labor reallocation from the traditional.
ii. What is true and relevant in Lewis's model for countries like Zambia is the presence of surplus labor in the traditional sector.
iii. What is not true and relevant in Lewis's model for countries like Zambia is the simplified dual-sector assumption.
i. The Lewis (1954) model explains development as structural transformation through the process of labor reallocation from the traditional agricultural sector to the modern industrial sector. The model assumes a dual economy consisting of a traditional subsistence sector with surplus labor and a modern capitalist sector with higher productivity and wages.
The diagram can be divided into two sections: the labor market and the production possibility frontier (PPF).
In the labor market, the vertical axis represents the wage rate, and the horizontal axis represents the total labor force. Initially, there is an unlimited supply of surplus labor available in the traditional sector, resulting in a horizontal labor supply curve. The wage rate remains low due to the surplus labor.
The PPF shows the production possibilities of both sectors. Initially, the PPF of the traditional sector is flat, indicating low productivity, while the PPF of the modern sector is steeper, representing higher productivity.
As development progresses, investment in the modern sector increases, leading to the expansion of modern industries. The demand for labor in the modern sector rises, attracting workers from the traditional sector. As surplus labor is absorbed into the modern sector, the labor supply curve becomes upward-sloping, indicating increasing wages. This process continues until surplus labor is fully utilized, leading to higher overall economic output and productivity.
ii. What is true and relevant in Lewis's model for countries like Zambia is the presence of surplus labor in the traditional agricultural sector. Zambia, being a developing country, often has a large labor force engaged in subsistence agriculture. The model suggests that by reallocating this surplus labor to the modern industrial sector through investment and job creation, Zambia can achieve structural transformation and economic development. This implies that focusing on industrialization and creating employment opportunities in the modern sector can be crucial for Zambia's development.
iii. What is not true and relevant in Lewis's model for countries like Zambia is the assumption of a dual economy with distinct traditional and modern sectors. In reality, the structure of the economy is more complex, with multiple sectors playing a role in the development process. Additionally, the model assumes unlimited surplus labor, which may not accurately represent the labor market dynamics in Zambia. Furthermore, the model does not explicitly consider factors such as technological advancements, skill development, and the importance of other sectors like services and agriculture in driving development. Therefore, while Lewis's model provides insights into labor reallocation and industrialization, it may not fully capture the complexities and dynamics of Zambia's development process.
To know more about development:
https://brainly.com/question/28011228
#SPJ11
Auntie Kitty sells her home for $200,000, which is then invested to earn 4 percent annually. If her life expectancy is five years, what is the maximum amount she can annually spend on a nursing home, doctors, and taxes? Use Appendix D to answer the question. Round your answer to the nearest dollar. The maximum amount that can be annually spend is $ If the return were to double to 8 percent, will the amount she may spend each year more than double? Use Appendix D to answer the question. Round your answer to the nearest dollar. If the return were to double, the amount that can be annually spend will -Select- and will be equal to $
If the return were to double to 8 percent, the amount Auntie Kitty can annually spend will not double but increase to $977,600.
To calculate the maximum amount Auntie Kitty can annually spend on nursing homes, doctors, and taxes, we need to determine the annual income she can generate from her investment of $200,000 at a 4 percent return.
Using Appendix D, we can find the appropriate factor for a 4 percent return over five years. The factor is 4.450.
Annual income = $200,000 × 4.450 = $890,000.
Therefore, the maximum amount Auntie Kitty can annually spend on nursing homes, doctors, and taxes is $890,000.
Now, let's consider what would happen if the return doubled to 8 percent annually.
Using Appendix D, we find the factor for an 8 percent return over five years, which is 4.888.
Annual income (with 8 percent return) = $200,000 × 4.888 = $977,600.
Comparing this with the previous annual income of $890,000, we can see that the amount Auntie Kitty can annually spend does not more than double. Instead, it increases to $977,600.
To learn more about annual income
https://brainly.com/question/30157678
#SPJ8
Suppose a single firm produces all of the output in a contestable market. Analysts determine that the market inverse demand function is P=500−20Q, and the firm's cost function is C(Q)=10Q. Determine the firm's equilibrium price and corresponding profits
To determine the firm's equilibrium price and corresponding profits, we need to find the point where the firm maximizes its profits. In a contestable market, a single firm has no barriers to entry or exit.
The firm's profit can be calculated as total revenue minus total cost. Total revenue is obtained by multiplying the price (P) by the quantity (Q) sold. In this case, the inverse demand function is P = 500 - 20Q., allowing potential competition to enter the market freely.Setting the price equal to the cost, we have:P = C(Q)500 - 20Q = 10QCombining like terms:30Q = 500Solving for Q:Q = 500 / 30Q = 16.67Substituting the value of Q back into the inverse demand function to find the equilibrium price:P = 500 - 20(16.67)P = 166.7So, the firm's equilibrium price is $166.7.To calculate the corresponding profits, we subtract the total cost from the total revenue:
learn more about equilibrium here:
https://brainly.com/question/13552166
#SPJ11
What is meant by ""capital deepening"" and explain how this affects growth initially and in the longer term?
"Capital deepening" refers to the increase in the amount of capital per worker in an economy, leading to higher productivity and long-term economic growth.
Capital deepening refers to the process of increasing the amount of capital available per worker in an economy. It involves investment in physical capital, such as machinery, equipment, infrastructure, and technology.
When the capital per worker increases, it leads to improved worker productivity and efficiency, resulting in increased output and economic growth. In the initial stages, capital deepening can have a significant impact on growth by allowing workers to produce more output with the same amount of labor input.
This leads to higher productivity levels and increased overall economic output. As a result, living standards may improve, wages may increase, and overall economic well-being may be enhanced.
In the longer term, capital deepening has the potential to contribute to sustained economic growth. The accumulation of capital per worker can foster technological advancements and innovation, leading to further increases in productivity and output.
Hence, capital deepening initially boosts growth by improving productivity, and in the longer term, it can foster sustained economic growth by promoting technological advancements, raising living standards, and encouraging further investment.
Learn more about Capital deepening here:
https://brainly.com/question/30880353
#SPJ11
You have the following data to consider an investment opportunity
UK annual interest rate = 1.5%
Turkey annual interest rate = 8%
Current spot exchange rate of Turkish Lira (TL) against UK Sterling (£): TL/£ = 3.16
One-year forward rate of TL/£ quoted by the market = 3.34
Calculate the theoretical one-year forward rate of TL/£ implied by the IRP theory.
According to the Interest Rate Parity (IRP) theory, the theoretical one-year forward rate of TL/£ implied by the given interest rates is approximately 3.35. This implies that the market forward rate of 3.34 is consistent with the IRP theory.
The Interest Rate Parity (IRP) theory states that the difference in interest rates between two countries should be reflected in the forward exchange rate between their currencies. In this case, we have the annual interest rates for the UK and Turkey, which are 1.5% and 8% respectively.
To calculate the theoretical one-year forward rate of TL/£ implied by the IRP theory, we can use the following formula:
Forward Rate = Spot Rate * (1 + Foreign Interest Rate) / (1 + Domestic Interest Rate)
Using the given spot exchange rate of TL/£ as 3.16, the UK interest rate of 1.5%, and the Turkey interest rate of 8%, we can substitute these values into the formula.
Forward Rate = 3.16 * (1 + 0.08) / (1 + 0.015) = 3.34
The calculated theoretical one-year forward rate of TL/£ implied by the IRP theory is 3.34. This indicates that the market forward rate of 3.34 is consistent with the interest rate parity theory.
Learn more about Interest Rate Parity:
brainly.com/question/33132772
#SPJ11
A distributor purchases industrial fans for $170 each. Its profit is 9.00% on selling price and markup is 35.00% on selling price. During a trade show, if the distributor offers a markdown of 9.00% on its fans, calculate the reduced profit or loss made per fan.
The reduced profit or loss per fan, considering a 9% markdown, would be a loss of $2.23. To calculate the reduced profit or loss per fan, we need to determine the selling price after the 9% markdown.
The selling price before the markdown can be calculated by adding the markup to the purchase cost. The markup of 35% on the selling price means the selling price is 135% of the purchase cost. Thus, the selling price before the markdown is $170 * 1.35 = $229.50.
After applying the 9% markdown, the selling price is reduced by 9% of $229.50, which is $20.66. Therefore, the new selling price after the markdown is $229.50 - $20.66 = $208.84.
Next, we calculate the reduced profit or loss per fan. The profit is 9% of the selling price, which is $208.84 * 0.09 = $18.79. Comparing this to the initial profit of $229.50 * 0.09 = $20.66, we find a reduction of $20.66 - $18.79 = $1.87. Therefore, the reduced profit or loss made per fan is -$1.87.
Learn more about profit here;
brainly.com/question/32864864
#SPJ11
On January 1, 2021, you deposited $5,800 in a savings account. The account will earn 11 percent annual compound interest, which will be added to the fund balance at the end of each year. Required: 1. What will be the balance in the savings account at the end of 4 years? (Future Value of $1.Present Value of $1. Future Value Annuity of $1. Present Value Annuity of $1.) Note: Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided. 2. What is the total interest for the 4 years? (Future Value of $1,Present Value of $1, Future Value Annuity. of $1. Present Value Annuity of $1.) Note: Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided. 3. How much interest revenue did the fund earn in 2021 and in 2022 ? Complete this question by entering your answers in the tabs below. What will be the balance in the savings account at the end of 4 years? Note: Round your final answer to 2 decimal places.
The balance in the savings account at the end of 4 years will be $8,937.81. The interest revenue earned in 2022 is $708.18.
Given information:
Principal amount = $5,800Annual compound interest rate = 11%Time = 4 yearsTo calculate the balance in the savings account at the end of 4 years, we can use the formula for future value of a lump sum:
FV = PV(1 + r)n
Where,
FV = Future valuePV = Present value of the investmentr = Annual interest raten = Time period (in years)Substituting the given values, we get,
FV = $5,800(1 + 0.11)⁴
FV = $5,800(1.11)⁴
FV = $8,937.81
Hence, the balance in the savings account at the end of 4 years will be $8,937.81.
Note: We round our final answer to 2 decimal places.
To calculate the total interest for the 4 years, we can subtract the principal amount from the future value.
FV = PV(1 + r)n
Interest = FV - PV
Substituting the given values, we get,
Interest = $8,937.81 - $5,800
Interest = $3,137.81
Hence, the total interest for the 4 years is $3,137.81.
To calculate the interest revenue earned in 2021, we can find the interest on the principal amount for one year at 11% annual compound interest rate.
I = P(r) = $5,800(0.11) = $638.00
Hence, the interest revenue earned in 2021 is $638.00.
To calculate the interest revenue earned in 2022, we can find the interest on the principal amount and interest earned in 2021 for one year at 11% annual compound interest rate. To do that, we can subtract the principal amount from the balance at the end of the year 2021, and then find the interest on the remaining balance for one year.
FV = PV(1 + r)n
FV = $5,800(1 + 0.11)
FV = $6,438.00
I = P(r) = $6,438.00(0.11) = $708.18
Hence, the interest revenue earned in 2022 is $708.18.
Learn more about Future Value:
brainly.com/question/33072276
#SPJ11
Varto Company has 9,800 units of its product in inventory that it produced last year at a cost of $160,000. This year's model is better than last year's, and the 9,800 units cannot be sold at last year's normal selling price of $52 each. Varto has two alternatives for these units: (T) They can be sold as is to a wholesaler for $88,200 or (2) they can be processed further at an additional cost of $192,700 and then sold for $274,400. (a) Prepare a sell as is or process further analysis of income effects. (b) Should Varto sell the products as is or process further and then sell them? Chip Company produces three products, Kin, Ike, and Bix. Each product uses the same direct material. Kin uses 4.7 pounds of the material, Ike uses 3.1 pounds of the material, and Bix uses 6.1 pounds of the material. Selling price per unit and variable costs per unit of each product follow. (a) Compute contribution margin per pound of material for each product. (b) If demand is limited, list the three products in the order in which management should produce and meet demand.
A) In the sell as is or process further analysis for Varto Company, selling the products as is would result in a loss of $71,800 ($160,000 - $88,200). Processing the units further and then selling them would result in a net income of $21,700 ($274,400 - $192,700).
B) Based on the analysis, Varto Company should choose to process the units further and then sell them, as it would result in a positive net income of $21,700 instead of a loss of $71,800.
A) To analyze the income effects, we compare the two alternatives:
- Selling the units as is: The revenue from selling the 9,800 units would be $88,200. However, the cost of production last year was $160,000, resulting in a loss of $71,800.
- Processing the units further: The additional cost of processing is $192,700. However, the revenue from selling the processed units would be $274,400. The net income in this case would be $274,400 - $192,700 = $81,700. Considering the initial cost of production last year, the overall net income would be $81,700 - $160,000 = $21,700.
B) Based on the analysis, Varto Company should choose to process the units further and then sell them. This decision would result in a net income of $21,700 instead of a loss of $71,800.
By processing the units, the company can add value and generate a higher selling price that outweighs the additional processing cost. Therefore, processing the units further is the more favorable option for Varto Company.
To know more about revenue , click here-
brainly.com/question/25623677
#SPJ11
The following information applies to the questions displayed below) Burchard Company sold 38,000 units of its only product for $16.60 per unit this year. Manufacturing and selling the product required $306,000 of fixed costs. Its per unit variable costs follow Direct materials $ 4.30 Direct labor 3.30 Variable overhead costs Variable selling and administrative costs For the next year, management will use a new material, which will reduce direct materials costs to $172 per unit and reduce direct labor costs to $1.98 per unit. Sales, total fixed costs variable overhead costs per unit, and variable selling and administrative costs per unit will not change Management is also considering raising its selling price to $19.92 per unit, which would decrease unit sales volume to 34,200 units, 8.43 0.23 1. Compute the contribution margin per unit from (a) using the new material and (b) using the new material and increasing the selling price (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)
The contribution margin per unit is negative in both scenarios, indicating potential losses and the need for pricing and cost analysis.
To calculate the contribution margin per unit, we need to subtract the variable costs per unit from the selling price per unit. Let's calculate the contribution margin per unit for each scenario:
(a) Using the new material:
Variable costs per unit = Direct materials + Direct labor + Variable overhead costs + Variable selling and administrative costs
Variable costs per unit = $172 + $1.98 + $8.43 + $0.23
Variable costs per unit = $182.64
Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable costs per unit
Contribution margin per unit = $16.60 - $182.64
Contribution margin per unit = -$2.04
(b) Using the new material and increasing the selling price:
Variable costs per unit remains the same as in scenario (a): $182.64
Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable costs per unit
Contribution margin per unit = $19.92 - $182.64
Contribution margin per unit = -$162.72
The contribution margin per unit is negative in both scenarios. This suggests that, regardless of the changes in material, labor, and selling price, the company is not covering its variable costs per unit. It indicates a potential loss for each unit sold. Management should carefully analyze and reconsider the pricing and cost structure to ensure profitability.
To know more about Selling price, click here:
brainly.com/question/27796445
#SPJ11
ABC Corp. was organized on Jan 1. Year 1. It was authorized to issue 100,000 shares of $1 par common stock and 20,000 shares of $10 par, 3% cumulative preferred stock. ABC Corp issued the following shares of stock during Year 1: 1.50,000 shares of common stock for $8 per share 2.2,000 shares of preferred stock for $25 per share. - What is the value of ABC Corp's Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Preferred Account on its Year 1 Balance Sheet? $20,000 $1,500 $30,000 $50,000
The value of ABC Corp's Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Preferred Account on its Year 1 Balance Sheet is $30,000.
Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Preferred Account represents the amount received from investors for preferred stock that exceeds its par value. In this case, ABC Corp issued 2,000 shares of $10 par, 3% cumulative preferred stock for $25 per share.
The par value of each share is $10, so the total par value of the preferred stock is 2,000 shares × $10 = $20,000.
To calculate the value of Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Preferred Account, we subtract the par value from the total amount received. In this case, the total amount received for the preferred stock is 2,000 shares × $25 = $50,000.
Therefore, the value of Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Preferred Account is $50,000 - $20,000 = $30,000.
On ABC Corp's Year 1 Balance Sheet, the value of Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Preferred Account would be reported as $30,000.
This account represents the portion of the proceeds from issuing preferred stock that exceeds its par value and reflects the additional value contributed by investors for the preferred shares.
Learn more about Balance Sheet here:
https://brainly.com/question/33094018
#SPJ11
30 pts
Based on the figure below, how many apartment owners would be willing to sell
their apartments for $91,000?
Group of answer choices
One
Two
Six
Ten
None
Flag question: Question 4
Question 40 pts
In the graph below, up to ten apartments may be available for sale. Suppose that ten more apartment owners enter the market, for a total of twenty available apartments. These new entrants into the market would be willing to sell their apartments for any price above $90,000. Which of the following statements accurately describes the resulting change in the supply curve?
Group of answer choices
The supply curve shifts to the right.
The supply curve shifts upward.
The supply curve shifts to the left.
The supply curve can no longer be represented by a straight line.
The supply curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the quantity supplied and the price of a product. It is generally assumed that the supply curve is a straight line that slopes upward from left to right, indicating that as the price of a product increases, the quantity supplied of that product will also increase. However, there are certain circumstances under which the supply curve can no longer be represented by a straight line.
One such circumstance is when there are diminishing returns to production. In this case, as producers try to increase the quantity supplied of a product, they find that it becomes more and more difficult to do so. Eventually, they reach a point where further increases in production require a disproportionately large increase in the cost of production. This means that the supply curve will start to curve upward at some point, indicating that the quantity supplied of the product will increase at a slower rate as the price increases.
Another circumstance under which the supply curve can no longer be represented by a straight line is when there are production bottlenecks. In this case, there may be certain factors that limit the amount of a product that can be produced, regardless of the price. For example, a factory may have a limited amount of equipment, or a particular raw material may be in short supply. When there are production bottlenecks, the supply curve may become flatter, indicating that the quantity supplied will not increase as much in response to price changes as it would if there were no bottlenecks.
In conclusion, the supply curve can no longer be represented by a straight line when there are diminishing returns to production or production bottlenecks. In both cases, the supply curve will start to curve upward or become flatter, respectively, indicating that the quantity supplied of the product will not increase as much in response to price changes as it would if these circumstances did not exist.
to know more about graphical representation pls visit-
https://brainly.com/question/32825410
#SPJ11
A stock price (which pays no dividends) is $48 and the strike price of a 0-year European put option is $58. The risk-free rate is 2% (continuously compounded). Calculate the lower bound for the option such that there are arbitrage opportunities if the price is below the lower bound and no arbitrage opportunities if it is above the lower bound. (Keep to 2 decimal ploces)
The lower bound for the option can be calculated using the put-call parity relationship. In this case, since the option is a put option and there are no dividends, the lower bound for the put option price is given by the strike price minus the current stock price, discounted at the risk-free rate.
The put-call parity relationship states that the difference between the price of a call option and a put option with the same strike price and the expiration date is equal to the difference between the current stock price and the present value of the strike price. Mathematically, it can be expressed as:
Call Option Price - Put Option Price = Stock Price - Present Value of Strike Price
In this case, the stock price is $48, the strike price is $58, and the risk-free rate is 2% (continuously compounded). To find the lower bound for the put option price, we rearrange the put-call parity formula:
Put Option Price = Call Option Price - Stock Price + Present Value of Strike Price
Since the option is a put option, we subtract the stock price and add the present value of the strike price. The present value of the strike price is calculated by discounting the strike price at the risk-free rate. Using the given values, we can calculate the lower bound for the put option price.
Learn more about put-call parity relationship at:
https://brainly.com/question/30695753
#SPJ11
Martinez Company accumulates the following data concerning raw materials in making one gallon of finished product. (1) Price-net urchase price $2.60, freight-in $0.20, and receiving and handling $0.10. (2) Quantity-required materials 4.20 pounds, allowance for zaste and spoilage 0.50 pounds.
Compute the following. (Round answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 1.25.)
(a) Standard direct materials price per gallon.
(b) Standard direct materials quantity per gallon.
(c) Total standard materials cost per gallon.
(c) Total standard materials cost per gallon is $11.10.
a) Standard direct materials price per gallon= $3.00
The calculation for (a) is as follows: Price-net purchase price $2.60 + freight-in $0.20 + receiving and handling $0.10
= $3.00.
Thus, the standard direct materials price per gallon is $3.00.
b) Standard direct materials quantity per gallon= 3.70 pounds
Calculation for
(b) is as follows: Quantity-required materials 4.20 pounds - allowance for waste and spoilage 0.50 pounds
= 3.70 pounds.
Thus, the standard direct materials quantity per gallon is 3.70 pounds.
c) Total standard materials cost per gallon
= $11.10
The calculation for (c) is as follows: Standard direct materials price per gallon $3.00 × standard direct materials quantity per gallon 3.70 pounds = $11.10.
Thus, the total standard materials cost per gallon is $11.10.
Know more about materials here:
https://brainly.com/question/30418755
#SPJ11
which of the following payment mechanisms would you use as an export if you are dealing with unknown import in a country with high political risk and unreliable banks?
1- open account
2- cash in advance
3- letter of credit
4- document collection
If you are dealing with an unknown import in a country with high political risk and unreliable banks, the most suitable payment mechanism would be a letter of credit (option 3).
A letter of credit provides a level of security for the exporter by involving a financial institution that guarantees payment upon the presentation of specified documents. This mechanism ensures that the exporter will receive payment as long as they comply with the terms and conditions outlined in the letter of credit. It mitigates the risk associated with unreliable banks and the political situation in the import country. Cash in advance (option 2) may be risky if the importer fails to fulfill their obligations, while open account (option 1) and document collection (option 4) do not offer the same level of financial security as a letter of credit.
To know more about political risk visit-
https://brainly.com/question/28524781
#SPJ11
On January 1,2019, Wasson Company purchased a delivery vehicle costing $45,200. The vehicle has an estimated 7 -year life and a $3,900 residual value. What is the vehicle's book value as of December 31,2020 , assuming Wasson uses the straight-line depreciation method?
Multiple Choice
a $35,400.
b $33,400.
c $29,500.
d $11,800.
The correct answer is not among the provided choices. The vehicle's book value as of December 31, 2020, is $39,100.
To calculate the vehicle's book value as of December 31, 2020, we need to determine the accumulated depreciation for the two-year period using the straight-line depreciation method. Here's the calculation:
Cost of the vehicle: $45,200
Residual value: $3,900
Useful life: 7 years
Depreciation per year = (Cost - Residual value) / Useful life
Depreciation per year = ($45,200 - $3,900) / 7 = $6,100
Accumulated depreciation as of December 31, 2020 = Depreciation per year x Number of years
Number of years = 2020 - 2019 = 1 year
Accumulated depreciation as of December 31, 2020 = $6,100 x 1 = $6,100
Book value as of December 31, 2020 = Cost - Accumulated depreciation
Book value as of December 31, 2020 = $45,200 - $6,100 = $39,100
Therefore, the correct answer is not among the provided choices. The vehicle's book value as of December 31, 2020, is $39,100.
Learn more about straight-line depreciation method: brainly.com/question/31874903
#SPJ11
21. Datum feature symbols are placed on the view where the surface appears as a(n) a. surface b. edge c. plane d. feature 22. In the American Standard, if the feature's nominal size is the same, which one has the bigger tolerance, basic hole or basic shaft? 23. In American Standard, we have two holes. One hole is bigger and the other one is smaller. But, these two holes belong to the same nominal size range. Which hole has a bigger tolerance? to 24. Instead of using nominal size, the International Standard uses represent size of the feature? 25. D9/h9, F8/h7, N7/h6, S7/h6, and U7/h6: which one is hole-based?
21. Datum feature symbols are placed on the view where the surface appears as a: c. plane
Datum feature symbols are graphical representations used in engineering drawings to specify reference points or surfaces for dimensional measurements. These symbols indicate the location and orientation of the datum feature relative to other features on the part. The datum feature is typically a flat surface that acts as a reference for measurement purposes.
When placing datum feature symbols on a view, they are positioned where the surface appears as a plane. This view provides a clear representation of the datum feature and facilitates accurate measurement and alignment with other features on the part.
22. In the American Standard, if the feature's nominal size is the same, the basic hole has the bigger tolerance.
In the American Standard, tolerances are specified using a system of limits and fits. The basic hole represents the minimum acceptable size for a hole, while the basic shaft represents the maximum acceptable size for a shaft. If the nominal size is the same for both the hole and the shaft, the basic hole will have a larger tolerance compared to the basic shaft.
This means that the dimensions of the hole can deviate more from the nominal size within the acceptable tolerance range, allowing for a wider variation in size. On the other hand, the basic shaft has a smaller tolerance, ensuring a tighter fit with other components.
23. In American Standard, if two holes belong to the same nominal size range, the smaller hole will have a bigger tolerance.
When two holes belong to the same nominal size range in the American Standard, the smaller hole will have a bigger tolerance. This means that the dimensions of the smaller hole can deviate more from the nominal size compared to the larger hole, within the specified tolerance range.
The reason for this is that smaller holes are typically more challenging to manufacture with high precision. Allowing a larger tolerance for the smaller hole accommodates the difficulties in achieving tight tolerances for smaller features. The larger hole, being relatively easier to manufacture, can have a smaller tolerance to ensure a tighter fit with mating components.
24. Instead of using nominal size, the International Standard uses represent size of the feature.
In the International Standard, the term "representative size" or "basic size" is used instead of nominal size. The representative size refers to the theoretical size that defines the intended functional dimension of the feature. It serves as a reference point for establishing tolerances and fits.
Unlike the nominal size, which is a rounded value used for general identification purposes, the representative size is a precise value used in engineering calculations and specifications. It provides a more accurate representation of the intended dimension of the feature and is critical for ensuring proper functionality and interchangeability of parts.
25. D9/h9, F8/h7, N7/h6, S7/h6, and U7/h6: N7/h6 is hole-based.
The designations D9/h9, F8/h7, N7/h6, S7/h6, and U7/h6 are examples of fits specified in the ISO system of limits and fits. Among these designations, N7/h6 is hole-based.
In the ISO system, a fit designation consists of a capital letter denoting the tolerance grade for the hole (in this case, N) and a lowercase letter denoting the tolerance grade for the shaft (h6). The hole-based fits specify the tolerance grade for the hole, while the shaft-based fits specify the tolerance grade for the shaft.
Therefore, in the given options, N7/h6 indicates that the hole has a tolerance grade of N and the shaft has a tolerance grade of h6.
learn more about Datum feature symbols
https://brainly.com/question/31676047
#SPJ11
11
Simon Company’s year-end balance sheets follow.
At December 31 Current Year 1 Year Ago 2 Years Ago
Assets
Cash $ 31,034 $ 35,565 $ 37,036
Accounts receivable, net 88,182 63,483 49,381
Merchandise inventory 113,090 83,065 52,606
Prepaid expenses 9,896 9,429 4,035
Plant assets, net 273,484 253,015 220,142
Total assets $ 515,686 $ 444,557 $ 363,200
Liabilities and Equity
Accounts payable $ 125,838 $ 75,130 $ 47,463
Long-term notes payable 97,918 103,271 81,873
Common stock, $10 par value 162,500 162,500 162,500
Retained earnings 129,430 103,656 71,364
Total liabilities and equity $ 515,686 $ 444,557 $ 363,200
The company’s income statements for the current year and one year ago, follow.
For Year Ended December 31 Current Year 1 Year Ago
Sales $ 670,392 $ 529,023
Cost of goods sold $ 408,939 $ 343,865
Other operating expenses 207,822 133,843
Interest expense 11,397 12,168
Income tax expense 8,715 7,935
Total costs and expenses 636,873 497,811
Net income $ 33,519 $ 31,212
Earnings per share $ 2.06 $ 1.92
rev: 09_07_2021_QC_CDR-376
(2-a) Compute debt-to-equity ratio for the current year and one year ago.
(2-b) Based on debt-to-equity ratio, does the company have more or less debt in the current year versus one year ago?
The debt-to-equity ratio for the current year and one year ago is 0.67.
By comparing the debt-to-equity ratios, we can determine if the company has more or less debt in the current year compared to one year ago.
The debt-to-equity ratio is calculated by dividing total liabilities by total equity. Let's compute the debt-to-equity ratio for the current year and one year ago:
Current Year:
Total Liabilities = Accounts Payable + Long-term Notes Payable = $125,838 + $97,918 = $223,756
Total Equity = Common Stock + Retained Earnings = $162,500 + $129,430 = $291,930
Debt-to-Equity Ratio (Current Year) = Total Liabilities ÷ Total Equity = $223,756 ÷ $291,930 ≈ 0.77
One Year Ago:
Total Liabilities = Accounts Payable + Long-term Notes Payable = $75,130 + $103,271 = $178,401
Total Equity = Common Stock + Retained Earnings = $162,500 + $103,656 = $266,156
Debt-to-Equity Ratio (One Year Ago) = Total Liabilities ÷ Total Equity = $178,401 ÷ $266,156 ≈ 0.67
Comparing the debt-to-equity ratios, we can see that the company has a higher debt-to-equity ratio in the current year (0.77) compared to one year ago (0.67). This indicates that the company has more debt in the current year than it did one year ago.
Learn more about debt-to-equity ratio here:
https://brainly.com/question/28391877
#SPJ11
MCQ
For a group of employees to be certified as a union:
management must agree to the certification
90% of all employees must sign a card and vote in favour of the union
25% of the employees must sign and vote in favour
40 % of workers in the bargaining unit must sign cards and 50% must vote in favour of the union
All workers must agree that they want a union to represent them
The majority of workers must sign and vote in favor of the union. The bargaining unit must be represented by the union, and not all workers have to agree that they want the union to represent them.
For a group of employees to be certified as a union, the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) has a number of requirements. The following is a detailed explanation of each requirement: For a union to be established, a minimum of 30% of employees must sign authorization cards. If the NLRB discovers that at least 30% of workers have signed cards indicating that they wish to be represented by a union, an election will be held. Workers can vote on whether or not they want the union to represent them in the election. The union must have more votes to win the election than the opposition. If the NLRB discovers that 50% of workers have signed cards indicating that they wish to be represented by a union, the employer may opt to voluntarily acknowledge the union rather than hold an election. The employer may also try to persuade employees to vote against the union by conveying a negative message about it. However, if the union is victorious, it will represent all employees, not just the employees who voted for it.
Learn more about authorization cards here:
https://brainly.com/question/31924044
#SPJ11
FILL THE BLANK.
advanced investing focuses on the concept of money and the investing of money on a(n) ____________________.
Advanced investing focuses on the concept of money and the investing of money on a(n) "asset or financial instrument."
An asset or financial instrument refers to any tangible or intangible item that holds value and can be bought, sold, or traded in financial markets. Examples of assets include stocks, bonds, real estate, commodities, currencies, and derivatives. Advanced investors study the characteristics, risks, and potential returns associated with different assets or financial instruments to make informed investment decisions. They analyze market trends, financial statements, economic indicators, and other relevant factors to identify opportunities and manage their investment portfolios effectively. By understanding the dynamics of various assets, advanced investors aim to maximize their wealth and achieve their financial goals.
learn more about investing here:
https://brainly.com/question/29845102
#SPJ11
Exhibit 14.3 USE THE INFORMATION BELOW FOR THE FOLLOWING PROBLEM Sarah Kling bought a six-month Peppy Cola put option with an exercise price of $55 for a premium of $8.25 when Peppy was selling for $48.00 per share.
Sarah Kling bought a six-month Peppy Cola put option with an exercise price of $55 for a premium of $8.25 when Peppy was selling for $48.00 per share.
From the given information:
Sarah Kling bought a put option, which gives her the right to sell Peppy Cola shares at the exercise price.
The exercise price (also known as the strike price) of the put option is $55.
The premium paid for the put option is $8.25.
The price of Peppy Cola shares at the time of purchase was $48.00.
To further analyze the transaction, we can calculate the breakeven point and determine Sarah's potential profit or loss at expiration.
Breakeven Point:
The breakeven point for buying a put option is calculated as the exercise price minus the premium paid. In this case, the breakeven point is:
Breakeven Point = Exercise Price - Premium = $55 - $8.25 = $46.75
Profit or Loss at Expiration:
To assess the profit or loss at expiration, we need to consider the spot price of Peppy Cola shares at that time. If the spot price is below the breakeven point ($46.75), Sarah would start to earn a profit. If the spot price is above the breakeven point, she would incur a loss.
Sarah Kling purchased a six-month Peppy Cola put option with an exercise price of $55 for a premium of $8.25 when Peppy was selling for $48.00 per share. The breakeven point for this transaction is $46.75. At expiration, Sarah's profit or loss will depend on the spot price of Peppy Cola shares.
To know more about price visit,
https://brainly.com/question/27815322
#SPJ11
1) At January 1, 2009, beginning inventory was understated by $26,000 and ending inventory as at December 31,2009 was overstated by $52,000. Accordingly "Cost of Sales" for the year ending December 31,2009 was: a) Understated by $26,000 b) Overstated by $26,000 c) Understated by $78,000 d) Overstated by $78,000
Cost of Sales for the year ending December 31, 2009, was overstated by $26,000. Option (b) is correct.
The cost of sales is a term that refers to the cost of goods sold by a company. This would include the cost of the materials used in the production of the goods, the cost of the labor that went into making the goods, and the cost of any overhead associated with making the goods. It is also known as "Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)."
The cost of sales is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold from the company's revenue. The following formula is used to calculate the cost of sales:
Cost of Sales = Revenue - Cost of Goods Sold
Cost of sales for the year ending December 31, 2009, was overstated by $26,000. Because beginning inventory was understated by $26,000 and ending inventory as of December 31, 2009, was overstated by $52,000. So the company claimed $26,000 more in expenses for the year than it actually incurred.
Cost of Sales = Beginning Inventory + Purchases − Ending Inventory
= ($26,000) + Purchases − ($52,000
)= Purchases − $26,000
So, if the beginning inventory was understated by $26,000 and ending inventory was overstated by $52,000, the cost of sales for the year ending December 31, 2009, would be overstated by $26,000.
Therefore, d is correct.
Learn more about Cost https://brainly.com/question/17120857
#SPJ11
Voltac Corporation (a U.S.-based company has the following Import/export transactions denominated in Mexican pesos In 2020: March 1 Bought inventory costing 106,eee pesos on credit. May 1 sold se percent of the inventory for 86,882 pesos on credit. August 1 Collected 73,eee pesos from customers. September 1 Paid 63,eee pesos to suppliers. Currency exchange rates for 1 peso for 2020 are as follows: Date March 1 May 1 August 1 September 1 December 31 U.S. Dollar per Peso $ 3.15 8.16 8.17 0.18 0.19 Assume that all receipts were converted into dollars as soon as they were received. For each of the following accounts, what amount will Voltac report on its 2020 financial statements? a Inventory b Cost of goods sold c Sales Accounts receivable Accounts payable f Cash
Your minimum list price for the ps4 should be $154.to calculate the minimum list price for the ps4 to cover your expenses.
We need to consider the selling price, vehicle expenses, ebay insertion fee, and ebay commission.
selling price: $100vehicle expenses: $50
ebay insertion fee: $2ebay commission: 3.0% of (selling price - $25)
let's calculate the ebay commission first:
ebay commission = 3.0% * ($100 - $25) = $2.25
now let's calculate the total expenses:total expenses = vehicle expenses + ebay insertion fee + ebay commission
total expenses = $50 + $2 + $2.25 = $54.25
to cover your expenses, the minimum list price should be:minimum list price = total expenses + selling price
minimum list price = $54.25 + $100 = $154.25 25 to ensure that you at least cover your expenses.
Learn more about expense here:
https://brainly.com/question/29850561
#SPJ11
Coastal Couriers Entity Sole Trader is in the business of delivering documents and packages in all regions in Namibia using its fleet of delivery vans. Coastal Couriers Entity's head office is located in Windhoek. It operates a fleet of five delivery vehicles. Because of increase demand for its delivery services prior to the summer school holidays and the need for an additional delivery vehicle, it has rented a delivery vehicle for three months at a cost of N\$ 40000 . The business wants to recognise the rented vehicle as an asset in the financial records of the business.
You are required to:
Discuss whether the treatment prosed by the business is correct or not. (15 Marks)
The treatment proposed by Coastal Couriers Entity Sole Trader to recognize the rented delivery vehicle as an asset in their financial records is not correct.
In accounting, an asset is typically recognized when it meets certain criteria, such as being owned by the business and providing future economic benefits. In this case, the delivery vehicle is rented for a specific period of time and does not meet the criteria for asset recognition. The cost of renting the vehicle should be treated as an expense rather than an asset.
Recognizing the rented vehicle as an asset would inaccurately portray the financial position of the business. Assets represent the resources owned by the business that can contribute to future cash flows. Since the rented vehicle does not belong to the business and will be returned to the owner after the rental period, it does not meet the definition of an asset.
Furthermore, recognizing the rented vehicle as an asset would also affect other financial statements. It would lead to an overstatement of assets on the balance sheet, as well as an overstatement of depreciation expense on the income statement when depreciation is calculated for the rented vehicle.
In conclusion, Coastal Couriers Entity Sole Trader should correctly treat the rented delivery vehicle as an expense rather than an asset. This will ensure accurate financial reporting and reflect the true financial position of the business.
Learn more about Financial records
brainly.com/question/10677328
#SPJ11