A. (10 points) The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in an advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk. At the same time, more milk producers enter the market. What does the standard demand and supply analysis tell us regarding change in the market price and quantity? Show your answer in a graph and explain. B. (10 points) Rapidly increasing health costs have been a major political concern since at least 1992. Suppose the government sets the maximum price for a normal doctor's visit at $20 to control rising health costs but the current market price is $40. What will happen? Show your answer in a graph and explain.

Answers

Answer 1

A. Quantity effect is ambiguous due to shifts in demand and supply curves, affecting milk production and consumption. B. Setting $20 doctor's visits price ceiling compared to $40 market price leads to healthcare service shortage.

A. In response to an advertising campaign that promotes milk consumption and an influx of new milk producers entering the market, the standard demand and supply analysis predicts a decrease in market price and an ambiguous effect on quantity. The graph below illustrates this scenario.

[Graph Description]

Initially, the market for milk is in equilibrium at point E, where the demand curve (D0) intersects with the supply curve (S0), determining the price (P0) and quantity (Q0) of milk.

However, due to the successful advertising campaign, consumer tastes shift towards drinking milk, leading to an increase in demand. This shift is represented by the demand curve shifting to the right, from D0 to D1.

Simultaneously, more milk producers enter the market, resulting in an increase in milk supply. This increase in supply is shown by the supply curve shifting to the right, from S0 to S1. As a result, the market price of milk decreases from P0 to P1, indicating a lower equilibrium price.

The effect on quantity is ambiguous because the magnitude of the shifts in demand and supply curves determines whether there will be a net increase or decrease.

If the increase in supply surpasses the increase in demand, the quantity of milk produced and consumed would rise. However, if the increase in demand outpaces the increase in supply, the quantity could decrease. Therefore, without specific information about the magnitudes of the shifts, it is not possible to determine the precise change in quantity.

B. If the government sets the maximum price for a normal doctor's visit at $20 while the current market price is $40, the market will experience a shortage of healthcare services. The graph below illustrates this situation.

[Graph Description]

Initially, the market equilibrium for doctor's visits is at point E, where the demand curve (D0) intersects with the supply curve (S0), determining the price (P0) and quantity (Q0) of visits. However, when the government imposes a maximum price of $20 (shown by the dashed line), it creates a price ceiling below the market equilibrium.

As a result, the price is forced down to $20, leading to a decrease in the quantity supplied by doctors. This decrease is represented by a movement along the supply curve from point E to a new point on the supply curve (S1).

At the same time, the lower price stimulates an increase in demand, as consumers find doctor's visits more affordable. This increase in demand is shown by the demand curve shifting to the right, from D0 to D1.

The imbalance between the quantity demanded (Qd1) and the quantity supplied (Qs1) at the price ceiling of $20 creates a shortage of doctor's visits in the market. The shortage represents the difference between the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied (Qd1 - Qs1), as shown in the graph.

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Related Questions

QN=106 (17836) 3. Refer to Figure 25-1. The curve becomes flatter as the amount of capital per worker increases because of
a. increasing returns to capital.
b. increasing returns to labor.
c. diminishing returns to capital.
d. diminishing returns to labor.

Answers

The correct answer to the question is c. diminishing returns to capital, as it explains why the curve becomes flatter as the amount of capital per worker increases. The curve becoming flatter as the amount of capital per worker increases is due to diminishing returns to capital.

Diminishing returns to capital refers to a concept in economics where, as the amount of capital per worker increases, the additional output or productivity gained from each additional unit of capital decreases.

This results in a flatter curve on the graph.

In Figure 25-1, the curve represents the relationship between the amount of capital per worker and the level of output or productivity.

As more capital is added per worker initially, the increase in output is substantial, indicating increasing returns to capital.

However, as the amount of capital per worker continues to increase, the additional gain in output diminishes, leading to a flatter curve.

The reason behind diminishing returns to capital is that at a certain point, the available labor and other inputs may not be able to effectively utilize or complement the additional capital.

The efficiency of capital utilization decreases, resulting in a less significant impact on output or productivity.

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Calculate deadweight loss given below information: A price floor of \$12 has been set by the government, how much is deadweight loss (in \( \$ \) thousande) comparing to market equilibrium?

Answers

To calculate the deadweight loss caused by a price floor, we need more information about the market equilibrium and the demand and supply curves.

It is not possible to calculate the specific deadweight loss in thousands of dollars. The deadweight loss occurs when the quantity supplied and demanded at the price floor is lower than the quantity that would be exchanged in a free market equilibrium.

It represents the loss of consumer and producer surplus due to the inefficient allocation of resources caused by the price floor.

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2021 Nina contributes 19% of her $80,000 salary to her 401K. She expects to earn a 5% before tax rate of return. Assuming she leaves this (and any employer contributions) in the account until she retires in 25 years. What is Nina's after-tax accumulation from her 2021 contributions to her 401K account?

a. Assume Nina's marginal tax rate at retirement is 30%

b. Assume Nina's marginal tax rate at retirement is 20%

c.. Assume Nina's marginal tax rate at retirement is 40%

Answers

Nina's after-tax accumulation from her 2021 contributions to her 401K account will depend on her marginal tax rate at retirement.

To calculate Nina's after-tax accumulation, we need to consider the tax implications on her contributions and the investment returns. Since Nina contributes 19% of her $80,000 salary to her 401K, her contribution amount is $80,000 * 0.19 = $15,200. This contribution is made before taxes, meaning it reduces her taxable income.

Assuming a 5% before-tax rate of return, her investment would grow by 5% of her contribution each year. Over 25 years, her contribution would accumulate to (1 + 0.05) ^ 25 * $15,200 = $49,436.88.

To calculate the after-tax accumulation, we need to consider her marginal tax rate at retirement. Let's consider the different scenarios:

a. If Nina's marginal tax rate at retirement is 30%, she will be taxed at 30% on her accumulated amount. Her after-tax accumulation would be $49,436.88 * (1 - 0.30) = $34,605.82.

b. If Nina's marginal tax rate at retirement is 20%, her after-tax accumulation would be $49,436.88 * (1 - 0.20) = $39,549.50.

c. If Nina's marginal tax rate at retirement is 40%, her after-tax accumulation would be $49,436.88 * (1 - 0.40) = $29,662.13.

The marginal tax rate at retirement has a significant impact on Nina's after-tax accumulation from her 2021 contributions to her 401K account. A higher marginal tax rate will result in a lower after-tax accumulation, as a larger portion of her accumulated amount will be subject to taxes.

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the offeror in a purchase agreement is usually the:

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The offeror in a purchase agreement is usually the party who initiates and presents the terms of the agreement.

In the context of a purchase agreement, the offeror is typically the buyer. The buyer takes the proactive role of formulating the offer to purchase specific goods or services from the seller.

As the offeror, the buyer specifies the essential elements of the transaction, such as the price, quantity, quality, delivery terms, payment terms, and any other relevant conditions.

These terms serve as the basis for negotiation and acceptance by the seller.

Once the offer is made, the seller becomes the offeree and has the option to accept, reject, or counter the offer. If the seller accepts the buyer's offer without any modifications, a binding contract is formed, and both parties are obligated to fulfill their respective obligations as outlined in the purchase agreement.

It is important to note that the roles of offeror and offeree can be subject to negotiation and may vary in certain situations or jurisdictions.

However, in most purchase agreement scenarios, the buyer typically assumes the role of the offeror by initiating the offer to purchase the goods or services.

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The selling price per unit of a product is $35, the fixed costs per month are $13,400, and the total variable costs per month are $11,500 at the break-even point. What is the number of units required to break even?

Round up to the next whole number

Answers

The number of units required to break even is 764 units.

To calculate the break-even point, we need to divide the total fixed costs ($13,400) by the contribution margin per unit. The contribution margin per unit is obtained by subtracting the variable cost per unit ($11,500) from the selling price per unit ($35). Dividing the fixed costs by the contribution margin per unit gives us the number of units needed to cover the fixed costs and reach the break-even point, which is 764 units in this case. The number of units required to break even is 764 units. This is calculated by dividing the total fixed costs ($13,400) by the contribution margin per unit, which is the selling price per unit ($35) minus the variable cost per unit ($11,500 divided by the number of units sold).

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If a company needs to reduce costs and doesn't feel pressured to adapt its products to a local market, it should use a _________ strategy to compete internationally.

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If a company needs to reduce costs and doesn't feel pressured to adapt its products to a local market, it should use a standardized strategy to compete internationally.

Standardized strategy is a form of strategy where products are designed for worldwide use in the same way as they are in the home market. Standardization strategy involves creating standardized products that are similar worldwide, with the exception of minor variations to satisfy local market needs.

Why do companies choose a standardized strategy?

One of the primary reasons businesses choose a standardized approach is to lower production expenses. Creating a single product that can be used in various markets worldwide can save a company a lot of money on research and development, as well as production costs. Other benefits of standardized strategies include having a unified corporate identity, being able to take advantage of economies of scale, and reducing global marketing costs.

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"Obtaining recognition from the employer is a critical step to be taken by a trade union before it can start collective bargaining with the employer on the terms and conditions of employment affecting its members."

Describe in details the laws and procedures that the trade union has to comply with in order to obtain this recognition.

Answers

The laws and procedures for obtaining recognition can vary depending on the jurisdiction, but I will provide a general overview of the typical requirements like Eligibility Criteria, Application for Recognition, Employer Notification, Verification of Membership, etc.

Obtaining recognition from an employer is indeed a critical step for a trade union to initiate collective bargaining regarding the terms and conditions of employment affecting its members. The laws and procedures for obtaining recognition can vary depending on the jurisdiction, but I will provide a general overview of the typical requirements.

Eligibility Criteria: Trade unions must meet certain eligibility criteria set forth by labor laws. These criteria often include minimum membership thresholds or a specified percentage of employees within the relevant workforce being members of the trade union.

Application for Recognition: The trade union initiates the process by submitting an application for recognition to the appropriate labor authority or employer. The application usually includes information about the trade union, its objectives, membership details, and evidence demonstrating compliance with eligibility criteria.

Employer Notification: Upon receiving the application, the labor authority or employer is typically required to notify employees and provide an opportunity for the employer and employees to express their views on the trade union's recognition.

Verification of Membership: The labor authority or employer may verify the membership details provided by the trade union to ensure compliance with eligibility criteria. This may involve cross-referencing membership lists with employee records or conducting an independent verification process.

Secret Ballot or Consultation: In some jurisdictions, a secret ballot may be conducted among the affected employees to determine their preference for trade union recognition. Alternatively, the labor authority or employer may engage in a consultation process with the employees to assess their support for the trade union's recognition.

Decision and Certification: Based on the application, verification process, and employee input, the labor authority or employer makes a decision regarding recognition. If the trade union meets the requirements, it is granted recognition, and a formal certification or recognition agreement may be issued.

It's important to note that the specific laws and procedures can vary significantly between countries and even within different industries or sectors. Trade unions should consult relevant labor legislation and seek legal advice to ensure compliance with the specific requirements in their jurisdiction.

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How should contingent liabilities that are reasonably possible be reported in the financial statements?

They should be disclosed in the footnotes.

They cannot be included in the financial statements.

They should be reported in the financial statements if they are estimable.

There is not enough information provided to answer this question.

Answers

Contingent liabilities that are reasonably possible be reported in the financial statements are they should be disclosed in the footnotes. The correct answer is a).

Contingent liabilities are potential obligations that may arise in the future, depending on the outcome of uncertain events. When these contingent liabilities are reasonably possible, meaning there is a significant chance of occurrence, they should be disclosed in the footnotes of the financial statements.

Footnotes provide additional information and details about the financial statements, including potential risks and uncertainties that may affect the company's financial position. Disclosing contingent liabilities in the footnotes allows users of the financial statements to be aware of these potential obligations and understand the potential impact on the company's financial condition.

While these contingent liabilities are not recognized as actual liabilities on the balance sheet unless they meet certain criteria for recognition, disclosing them in the footnotes provides transparency and helps users make informed decisions.

It ensures that the financial statements provide a comprehensive and accurate representation of the company's financial position, including potential risks and uncertainties that may affect its future obligations.

So, correct option is A.

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In order for a Production Possibilities Cukve to shift out
O There has to be an increase in demand
O There has to be an increase in sepply
O There has to be an increase in technology
O There has to be more unemployment

Answers

A shift outward in the Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) is primarily driven by an increase in technology, not by changes in demand, supply, or unemployment.

Technological advancements lead to increased efficiency and productivity, enabling an economy to produce more goods and services with the same amount of resources. The Production Possibilities Curve represents the maximum combination of goods and services that an economy can produce given its available resources and technology. A shift outward or to the right of the PPC indicates an increase in the economy's productive capacity.

An increase in demand alone does not directly cause a shift in the PPC. Demand represents the quantity of goods and services that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given price. While an increase in demand may influence resource allocation and production decisions, it does not affect the economy's overall productive capacity.

Similarly, an increase in supply, which refers to the quantity of goods and services that producers are willing to offer at a given price, does not directly lead to a shift in the PPC. Supply considerations may impact the allocation of resources and affect the production mix, but they do not change the economy's potential to produce.

Unemployment, the state of being without a job, also does not directly impact the PPC. While unemployment can affect the allocation of resources and result in underutilization of the economy's productive potential, it does not cause a structural shift in the PPC itself.

On the other hand, an increase in technology is a key driver of a shift outward in the PPC. Technological advancements improve efficiency, introduce new production techniques, and enable the economy to produce more output with the same amount of resources. This leads to an expansion of the economy's productive capacity and a shift of the PPC to the right.

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Which of the following is true for profit-maximizing firms under monopolistic competition in the long run?

P > MC
P = ATC.
P > MR
All of the above choices are true in monopolistic competition long run equilibrium.
There is no long run equilibrium for monopolistically competitive firms.

Answers

In the long run for profit-maximizing firms under monopolistic competition, the correct statement is that "P > MC." This means that price exceeds marginal cost in order to maximize profits. The other options are not true for firms in monopolistic competition in the long run.

The correct statement for profit-maximizing firms under monopolistic competition in the long run is that "P > MC," where P represents price and MC represents marginal cost. This condition is essential for firms to maximize their profits.

The statement "P = ATC" is not true for firms in monopolistic competition in the long run. ATC refers to average total cost, and in the long run, firms in monopolistic competition do not operate at the minimum point of their average total cost curve. Instead, they have excess capacity, which means their average costs are higher than they would be if they were producing at their efficient scale.

Similarly, the statement "P > MR" is also not true for firms in monopolistic competition in the long run. MR refers to marginal revenue, and in the long run, firms in monopolistic competition produce where their marginal revenue equals their marginal cost.

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this organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing

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The organization that develops standards for specimen handling and processing is known as the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI). This organization develops the standards in order to help laboratories produce reliable and accurate test results, which are essential for proper patient diagnosis and treatment.

It is a non-profit organization that was formed in 1967 with the mission of developing and promoting consensus-based standards that enhance patient care, improve laboratory quality, and advance the field of clinical and laboratory medicine.

The standards developed by CLSI are based on scientific research, clinical experience, and expert consensus. They cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory testing, including pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical phases of testing.

CLSI standards provide guidance on specimen collection, handling, and processing, as well as on test procedures, quality control, and quality assurance. They are updated on a regular basis to reflect advances in technology and changes in clinical practice.

In addition to developing standards, CLSI also offers educational programs and resources to help laboratory professionals implement the standards effectively. These resources include workshops, webinars, and publications. CLSI also provides accreditation services to laboratories that meet its standards.

In conclusion, the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute is an organization that develops standards for specimen handling and processing. Its standards are based on scientific research and expert consensus and are designed to help laboratories produce reliable and accurate test results. CLSI also offers educational programs and resources to help laboratory professionals implement the standards effectively.

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Determining goals and vision is the prerogative of
a. low level managers
b. leaders
c. high level managers
d. all employees

Answers

The determination of goals and vision is the prerogative of b) leaders.

The responsibility of determining goals and vision falls on leaders within an organization. Leaders, including high-level managers, have the authority and expertise to shape the overall direction of the company.

They possess a broader perspective of the business environment, industry trends, and organizational capabilities, which allows them to set meaningful goals and develop a compelling vision for the future.

Leaders are accountable for establishing strategic objectives that align with the organization's mission and values. They consider various factors, such as market conditions, competitive landscape, customer needs, and internal capabilities, when formulating goals.

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stockholders and $6 million to common stockholders. What was Soccer Starz's net income for the year?
Multiple Choice
$40 million
$15 million
$49 million
$7 million

Answers

The net income of Soccer Starz for the year is $7 million, which is the amount of profit earned after all expenses have been deducted from the total revenue

Soccer Starz's net income can be calculated by subtracting the total expenses from the total revenue. In this case, the total revenue is

55million (consistingof49 million paid to preferred stockholders and

6million paid to common stockholders) and the total expenses are not given. However, we know that the net income is 7 million, which means that the total expenses must be 48million (55 million - $7 million).

Therefore, the net income of Soccer Starz for the year is $7 million, which is the amount of profit earned after all expenses have been deducted from the total revenue.

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A partnership agreement

D) must be reviewed by legal counsel retained by each partner.

B) is governed exclusively by the terms of the Partnership Act which terms the partners cannot deviate from.

E) cannot be drafted by the individual partners because many are novices and unaware of business pitfalls.

A) must be in writing to be enforceable.

C) may be wholly oral and yet valid and enforceable

Answers

Option A and C are correct. A partnership agreement can be valid and enforceable even if it is entirely oral, but it is recommended to have it in writing to ensure enforceability.

Partnership agreements are legal contracts that outline the terms and conditions of the partnership between two or more parties. While it is possible for a partnership agreement to be valid and enforceable even if it is wholly oral, it is highly recommended to have it in writing. A written agreement provides clarity and helps to avoid misunderstandings or disputes that may arise in the future.

Additionally, a written partnership agreement allows the partners to clearly define their rights, obligations, profit-sharing arrangements, decision-making processes, and other crucial aspects of the partnership. It also helps to protect the interests of each partner and provides a legal reference in case of any disagreements or legal issues. Therefore, while oral agreements may be valid, it is advisable to have a written partnership agreement to ensure enforceability and minimize potential risks and uncertainties.

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Income inequality concern has been an important issue in development economics since the 1970s.

With the help of a well labeled diagram, explain how the ideas in the Lorentz diagram are used to explain how the problem of income inequality can be identified.
How does Kuznet’s reversed U hypothesis, based mainly on Asian countries, including those that are now considered developed, explain the idea that income inequality need not always be a source of concern?
Discuss, briefly, the relevance of Kuznet’s reversed U hypothesis for a country like Zambia that happens to have been at the same level of development since the time the hypothesis was put forward

Answers

The Lorentz diagram illustrates income distribution and income inequality, while Kuznet's reversed U hypothesis suggests an initial increase and decline over time, affecting Asian countries.

The Lorentz diagram is a graphical representation of income distribution. It plots the cumulative share of income received by different segments of the population, typically divided into quintiles or percentiles.

By comparing the Lorenz curves of different time periods or countries, income inequality can be identified. If the Lorenz curve for a particular period or country lies further away from the ideal line of perfect equality, it indicates a higher level of income inequality.

Kuznet's reversed U hypothesis suggests that income inequality may follow an inverted U-shaped pattern during the process of economic development. In the early stages, income inequality tends to increase as certain sectors or groups benefit more from economic growth.

However, as development progresses and income spreads across a broader base, inequality begins to decline. This hypothesis, primarily based on Asian countries' experiences, challenges the assumption that income inequality is always a negative outcome of development.

For a country like Zambia, which has remained at the same level of development since Kuznet's hypothesis was formulated, the relevance is limited. Kuznet's hypothesis focuses on the changing nature of income inequality during the development process, which assumes upward mobility and structural changes in the economy.

If a country remains stagnant in its level of development, the hypothesis may not accurately explain the dynamics of income inequality in that specific context. Other factors and theories specific to Zambia's unique circumstances would need to be considered to understand and address income inequality effectively.

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I. Palatin (NASDAQ: PTN) has never paid a dividend and has no plans to do so. It announced a 1 for-25 stock split to be taken into effect in August. PTN was trading at $0.23 share in August just prior to the stock split, and September European call options on 100 PTN shares with strike $0.21 were trading at $0.01. The risk-free interest rate is 5% p.a. continuously compounded for all maturities.
(a) Are there any arbitrage opportunities in which you earn an immediate profit? If there is, describe activities and cashflows for t=0 ONLY.
(b) Would you answer to (a) change for an otherwise identical October American call option trading at the same price? Why or why not?
(c) Describe adjustments to the call option after the stock split, support with calculations.

Answers

(A) The situation does present an arbitrage opportunity. An investor can take part in the following activities to make a quick profit: 1. Spend $575 to purchase 2,500 PTN shares ($0.23 per share x 2,500 shares).

2. On PTN, sell 100 European call options for $0.01 each to get $1 in premium. The following are the cashflows at time t=0: Initial Cash Flow: -$575 (PTN share buy) Initial Cash Flow: $1 plus the premium from the sale of call options. An immediate profit of $574 results from the net cashflow at time zero, which is -$574. (b) If an otherwise identical October American call option were to trade at the same price, the answer to (a) would be different. American options can be exercised at any moment before expiration, unlike European options, which cannot. can only be used when something expires. The October American call option would be more valuable and less likely to present an arbitrage opportunity if it allowed for early exercise. (c) The number of PTN shares will increase by a factor of 25 following the 1 for 25 stock split, and the strike price of the call option will reduce by the same quantity. The following formula can be used to compute the call option adjustments: 100 shares multiplied by 25 to get the new number of shares backing the call option: 2,500 shares. $0.21/25 = $0.0084 is the new strike price. The right to purchase 2,500 shares of PTN at the current strike price of $0.0084 would be represented by the call option contract. The modifications make sure that the stock split is taken into account and In terms of the underlying shares and strike price, the option still has the same value as the pre-split option.

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identify the following as either a safety, privacy, or ethical issue: airline and general aviation pilots worry that a collision with a drone could bring down an aircraft.

Answers

Safety Issue: Airline and general aviation pilots worry that a collision with a drone could bring down an aircraft.

This issue primarily falls under safety concerns. The potential collision between drones and aircraft poses a significant risk to the safety of pilots and passengers. The physical impact of a collision could cause severe damage to an aircraft, potentially leading to a catastrophic accident. Ensuring the safe coexistence of drones and manned aircraft is crucial for maintaining the overall safety of the aviation industry.

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who makes the legally enforceable promises in a unilateral contract

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The offeror, who initiates the contract by making promises, is the party that makes the legally enforceable promises in a unilateral contract.

In a unilateral contract, the offeror is the party that makes the legally enforceable promises. This type of contract involves a one-sided commitment where the offeror offers a reward or benefit in exchange for a specific action or performance by the offeree. The offeror's promise becomes binding once the offeree completes the required action. The offeree's acceptance is demonstrated through their performance rather than through explicit acceptance. The offeror is then obligated to fulfill their promise as stated in the contract, and the offeree can enforce the terms of the agreement if the promise is not upheld.

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The covariance of the monthly returns on the stock DNG and those on the market indes is 000492 , and the variance of the ING returns and the make reams is 00129 and 0.0059, revpectively. What is the beta of ING, and is it more or less volatile than the market? 0.38; fess volatile 0.83; more volatule 038, more volatile 083, leas solatile

Answers

The beta of ING is 0.083, and it is less volatile than the market. Variance of ING returns and the market returns is 0.00129 and 0.0059, respectively, to find beta of ING and determine if it is more or less volatile than the market.

To calculate the beta of ING, we use the formula:

Beta = Covariance of ING Returns and Market Returns / Variance of Market Returns

Given:

Covariance (ING, Market) = 0.000492

Variance (ING) = 0.00129

Variance (Market) = 0.0059

Beta = 0.000492 / 0.0059 ≈ 0.083

The beta of ING is approximately 0.083. Since the beta is less than 1, it indicates that ING is less volatile than the market.

Returns, in finance, refer to the gains or losses generated from an investment or financial instrument over a specific period of time. It represents the increase or decrease in the value of the investment.

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Maxim manufactures a hamster food product colled Green Health. Maxim currently has 20,000 bags of Green Henth on hand. The variable production cosı-per bag are $3.60 and total fixed costs are $28,000. The hamster food can be sold as it is for $10.00 per bag or be processed further into Premium Gieen and Green Deluxe at an additionat cost. The additional processing will yield 20.000 bags of Premium Green and 4,800 bags of Green Deluxe, which can be sold for $9 and $7 per bog. respectively, The incremental revencse of processing Green Health further into Premium Green end Green Deluxe would bei: Multiple Chaice $209600 $13,600 $0,600. $4,000 $213,600.

Answers

The incremental revenue of processing Green Health further into Premium Green and Green Deluxe would be $213,600.

To calculate the incremental revenue, we need to consider the additional revenue generated by processing Green Health into Premium Green and Green Deluxe.

The additional processing yields 20,000 bags of Premium Green and 4,800 bags of Green Deluxe. The revenue from selling Premium Green is $9 per bag, so the additional revenue from Premium Green is 20,000 bags * $9 = $180,000.

Similarly, the revenue from selling Green Deluxe is $7 per bag, so the additional revenue from Green Deluxe is 4,800 bags * $7 = $33,600.

Therefore, the incremental revenue from processing Green Health further into Premium Green and Green Deluxe is $180,000 + $33,600 = $213,600.

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What account is found on the statement of income?
Question 1 options:
taxes payable
accumulated amortization
bank loan
salaries

Answers

On the statement of income, the account that is typically found is "salaries." The statement of income, also known as the income statement or profit and loss statement,

financial statement that provides an overview of a company's revenues, expenses, gains, and losses over a specific period. Its purpose is to show the company's ability to generate profit or incur losses. Among the options given, "salaries" is an expense account that represents the compensation paid to employees for their work during the period covered by the statement. It falls under operating expenses and is deducted from revenues to calculate the company's operating profit or loss. The other options mentioned, namely "taxes payable," "accumulated amortization," and "bank loan," are not typically found on the statement of income. Taxes payable represents a liability, accumulated amortization pertains to the reduction in the value of intangible assets, and bank loan is a liability related to borrowing activities, which are usually reported on the balance sheet rather than the statement of income.

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According to the Weitzman rule, when the ___ (marginal cost/marginal benefit) of abatement is uncertain, tax and cap-and-trade can lead to different outcomes. Specifically, if the ____ (marginal cost/marginal benefit) curve is relatively steep, ____ (tax/cap-and-trade) is preferred because it creates a smaller ____ (social surplus/emission quantity/abatement quantity/deadweight loss)
However, if that curve is relatively flat, the opposite is true.

Answers

the choice between tax and cap-and-trade depends on the shape of the marginal cost curve, with steep curves favoring tax and flat curves favoring cap-and-trade.

According to the Weitzman rule, when the marginal cost of abatement is uncertain, tax and cap-and-trade can lead to different outcomes. Specifically, if the marginal cost curve is relatively steep, tax is preferred because it creates a smaller deadweight loss. The steeper curve indicates that the cost of reducing emissions is relatively high, and a tax approach allows firms to choose the most cost-effective abatement options. By contrast, if the marginal cost curve is relatively flat, the opposite is true.

In this case, cap-and-trade is preferred because it creates a smaller abatement quantity and a smaller social surplus. A flatter marginal cost curve implies that firms can achieve significant abatement at a lower cost. With a cap-and-trade system, firms are allocated emissions permits that can be traded. This allows firms with lower abatement costs to sell their permits to firms with higher costs, resulting in an efficient allocation of emissions reduction. The smaller abatement quantity and social surplus in this scenario indicate that the cap-and-trade approach is more effective in achieving emission reductions at a lower overall cost

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Describe one or more principle and technique in regard to
managing:
Electronic spreadsheets In this context, a technique is a method of doing some task or
performing something. In this context a principle is a general rule that should be
followed

Answers

Principles and techniques in regard to managing electronic spreadsheets are as follows:

Principles of managing electronic spreadsheets are mentioned below:

Accuracy principle:

It is important to be as precise as possible when creating electronic spreadsheets, since even the smallest error may have serious consequences.

Completeness principle:

It is essential to have complete information for the task at hand when dealing with electronic spreadsheets. It is critical that the spreadsheet contains all relevant information to make informed choices.

Timeliness principle:

The information contained in the electronic spreadsheets should be current and up to date. It is important to update the electronic spreadsheets regularly so that they reflect the most up-to-date data.Presentation principle: It is essential that the electronic spreadsheets are well-structured and easy to read. This principle allows individuals to quickly and easily understand the information contained in the electronic spreadsheets.Techniques for managing electronic spreadsheets are as follows:

Conditional formatting:

This technique involves modifying the color or appearance of a cell or range of cells based on the content of the cells. This can be used to emphasize the information or draw attention to critical data.

AutoFilter:

This technique allows the user to sort and filter data in a variety of ways quickly. This helps the user in isolating the data that is essential for making informed decisions.

Pivot tables:

This technique helps users to analyze and summarize data in a more visually appealing manner. This makes it easier to spot trends, see relationships between data, and interpret data.

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1. ***** Funshop Ltd is a Furniture retailer and sells the following five products. At December 2021z, quantity on hand, cost per unit and net realizable value (NRV) per unit of the product lines are as follows.
Product Quantity on hand (Units) Cost per unit(P) NRV per unit

Lounge 100 1000 1020

Dining Tables 200 500 450

Beds 300 1500 1600

Chairs 400 750 770

Dressing tables 500 250 200

Required: showing using the lower of cost and NRV principle.Funshop Ltd at 31 December 2021 as per IAS2 (5 marks)

Answers

Using the lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV) principle, Funshop Ltd will need to assess the inventory at December 31, 2021, for each product line. The lower of cost and NRV is determined by comparing the cost per unit and the NRV per unit, and the lower value is used to value the inventory.

Here is the calculation for each product line:

1. Lounge:

  - Cost per unit: $1,000

  - NRV per unit: $1,020

  - Lower of cost and NRV: $1,000 (since cost is lower than NRV)

  - Total value of Lounge inventory: $1,000 per unit * 100 units = $100,000

2. Dining Tables:

  - Cost per unit: $500

  - NRV per unit: $450

  - Lower of cost and NRV: $450 (since NRV is lower than cost)

  - Total value of Dining Tables inventory: $450 per unit * 200 units = $90,000

3. Beds:

  - Cost per unit: $1,500

  - NRV per unit: $1,600

  - Lower of cost and NRV: $1,500 (since cost is lower than NRV)

  - Total value of Beds inventory: $1,500 per unit * 300 units = $450,000

4. Chairs:

  - Cost per unit: $750

  - NRV per unit: $770

  - Lower of cost and NRV: $750 (since cost is lower than NRV)

  - Total value of Chairs inventory: $750 per unit * 400 units = $300,000

5. Dressing Tables:

  - Cost per unit: $250

  - NRV per unit: $200

  - Lower of cost and NRV: $200 (since NRV is lower than cost)

  - Total value of Dressing Tables inventory: $200 per unit * 500 units = $100,000

Therefore, based on the lower of cost and NRV principle as per IAS 2, the inventory value for Funshop Ltd at December 31, 2021, would be as follows:

Lounge: $100,000

Dining Tables: $90,000

Beds: $450,000

Chairs: $300,000

Dressing Tables: $100,000

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Question 2: In 500+ words (single spaced), Explain and discuss A) Parallel Accounting (5pecifically GAAP, HCB and IFRS) and General Ledger Accounting (specifically account #100,000,#329,000 and figure 3-13, 3-14) located in introduction to Accounting from the e्रText.

Answers

Parallel accounting refers to the process of preparing a company's financial statement using two different accounting principles, including GAAP, IFRS, and HCB. On the other hand, general ledger accounting is the record of all financial transactions that occur within an organization. Account numbers #100,000 and #329,000 are used in general ledger accounting for assets and liabilities, respectively, while figures 3-13 and 3-14 illustrate the structure of the general ledger.

Parallel accounting involves preparing a company's financial statement using two different accounting principles simultaneously. Generally, companies use the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) for their financial statement as it is the standard accounting principle in the United States. International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) is a global accounting principle and is used in most parts of the world, except the United States. Harmonization of International Accounting Standards and German Accounting Standards (HGB) is used for accounting in Germany. A company may choose to adopt two accounting principles due to various reasons such as mergers and acquisitions, different regulations, or for compliance purposes. General ledger accounting is a process of recording all financial transactions that occur within an organization. The general ledger serves as the backbone of an organization's financial accounting system. Account number #100,000 is used in the general ledger accounting for assets, while account number #329,000 is used for liabilities. The general ledger accounting system helps organizations keep track of their financial transactions, ensuring that their accounts are up to date. Figures 3-13 and 3-14 illustrate the structure of the general ledger, which includes accounts for assets, liabilities, equity, revenues, and expenses. Overall, parallel accounting and general ledger accounting are essential components of a company's financial accounting system, and they help organizations maintain accurate financial records. Companies must maintain proper accounting records as they help them make informed financial decisions, comply with regulatory requirements, and communicate their financial performance to stakeholders.

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Mervin and Linus are equal partners in a car dealership. During the current FBT year, the use of a car was provided to each of the following. Which of the following represents a fringe benefit? a. Mervin's wife Rowie, who is employed by the partnership as an office manager, was given $8,000 cash bonus. b. Linus' daughter Penny, who is studying law at university, was given the use of a Nissan. Penny worked at the dealership for 2 days a week. c. Mervin's daughter Leanne, who is studying medicine full-time at university, was given the use of a Peugeot. d. Linus was given the use of a Saab

Answers

In the given scenario, the fringe benefit is represented by option Linus' daughter Penny, who is studying law at university, is being given the use of a Nissan while working at the dealership for 2 days a week. Option b is correct.

A fringe benefit refers to any non-cash benefit provided to an employee or an associate of a business, which is provided in connection with their employment or association. In this case, the use of the car is provided to Penny as a benefit in relation to her association with the car dealership, despite her part-time status.

This arrangement qualifies as a fringe benefit because Penny is receiving a benefit in the form of car usage due to her connection with the dealership. It is important to note that fringe benefits can have tax implications, as they are subject to Fringe Benefits Tax (FBT) in many jurisdictions.

The other options mentioned do not represent fringe benefits. Option A refers to a cash bonus given to Mervin's wife, which is a separate form of compensation. Option c involves Mervin's daughter, who is studying full-time and not directly associated with the car dealership. Option d simply mentions Linus being given the use of a car, which does not involve an associate or employee.

Option b is correct.

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a) jhon Contracting Inc. is considering the purchase of a new dump truck for $ 100,000 . If this vehicle can be depreciated for tax purposes at 30 %, what is the undepreciated capital cost of the vehicle after five years , using the CCA half year method ?
b) If jhon pays taxes at the rate of 35 % and its cost of capital is 12 %, what is the net present value of the tax shield for this five - year period ? \$25,000
c) If the asset were sold for $25,000 at the end of the fifth year , would this result in an increase or decrease in the undepreciated capital cost balance in the asset pool for this class of asset . Briefly explain why .

Answers

a)  If this vehicle can be depreciated for tax purposes at 30 %, the undepreciated capital cost of the vehicle after five years , using the CCA half year method is $51,804.50.

b)  If jhon pays taxes at the rate of 35 % and its cost of capital is 12 %, the net present value of the tax shield for this five - year period is $143,404.61.

c) If the asset were sold for $25,000 at the end of the fifth year, it would result in a decrease in the undepreciated capital cost (UCC) balance in the asset pool for this class of asset.

a) The CCA (Capital Cost Allowance) is a tax deduction method used in Canada to account for the depreciation of assets. The CCA half-year rule states that only half of the annual depreciation can be claimed in the year of acquisition and the year of disposal.

To calculate the undepreciated capital cost (UCC) after five years, we need to apply the CCA rate to the initial cost and subtract the cumulative depreciation claimed each year.

Year 1: CCA Depreciation = $100,000 * 30% * 0.5 = $15,000

Year 2: CCA Depreciation = ($100,000 - $15,000) * 30% * 0.5 = $13,500

Year 3: CCA Depreciation = ($100,000 - $15,000 - $13,500) * 30% * 0.5 = $9,450

Year 4: CCA Depreciation = ($100,000 - $15,000 - $13,500 - $9,450) * 30% * 0.5 = $6,615

Year 5: CCA Depreciation = ($100,000 - $15,000 - $13,500 - $9,450 - $6,615) * 30% * 0.5 = $4,630.50

UCC after five years = Initial Cost - Cumulative Depreciation

= $100,000 - ($15,000 + $13,500 + $9,450 + $6,615 + $4,630.50)

= $100,000 - $48,195.50

= $51,804.50

b) The net present value (NPV) of the tax shield is calculated by determining the present value of the tax savings resulting from depreciation deductions. To calculate NPV, we need to calculate the annual tax savings using the depreciation expense, the tax rate, and the cost of capital.

Annual tax savings = CCA Depreciation * Tax Rate

= ($15,000 + $13,500 + $9,450 + $6,615 + $4,630.50) * 35%

= $49,195.50 * 35% = $17,208.43

Using the formula for the NPV of a perpetuity:

NPV = (Annual Tax Savings / Cost of Capital) * (1 - (1 + Cost of Capital)^(-n))

= ($17,208.43 / 12%) * (1 - (1 + 12%)^(-5))

≈ $143,404.61

c) The UCC balance represents the remaining value of the asset that can be further depreciated for tax purposes.

Since the asset is sold for $25,000, it means that this amount would be subtracted from the UCC balance. The UCC balance would decrease, as the asset is no longer part of the pool of depreciable assets for tax purposes. The remaining UCC balance would then be used to calculate future depreciation deductions.

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1. Answer the following questions: (1×10=10)
(a) Who led the Aligarh Movement?
(b) Who was the pioneer of the foundation of the All India Muslim League?
(c) Who write the book 'Indian Mussalmans'?
(d) Who proposed the Lahore Resolution?
(e) How did the Hindu community react with the Lahore Resolution?
(f) When was the Awami Muslim League founded?
(g) Why was the world 'Muslim' removed from the name of the Awami Muslim League?
(h) When was the Tamaddun Majlish founded?
(i) Name the four parties that formed the United Front.
(j) When did the United Front government take its oath?

Answers

The Aligarh Movement was led by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, while Nawab Salimullah Khan pioneered the establishment of the All India Muslim League. Syed Mahmud wrote the book 'Indian Mussalmans', and A.K. Fazlul Huq proposed the Lahore Resolution. The Hindu community reacted negatively to the Lahore Resolution. The Awami Muslim League was founded in 1949, and later the word 'Muslim' was removed from its name. The Tamaddun Majlish was founded in 1926. The United Front was formed by the Awami League, Krishak Praja Party, Hindu Mahasabha, and Communist Party. The United Front government took its oath in 1954.

(a) The Aligarh Movement was led by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan. He was a prominent Muslim philosopher, educationalist, and social reformer in British India. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan established the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh, which later evolved into the renowned Aligarh Muslim University. The movement aimed to uplift the Muslims of India through modern education and social reforms.

(b) The pioneer of the foundation of the All India Muslim League was Nawab Salimullah Khan. He was a prominent politician and leader from Bengal. Nawab Salimullah Khan played a significant role in bringing together various Muslim leaders and establishing the All India Muslim League in Dhaka in 1906.

(c) The book 'Indian Mussalmans' was written by Syed Mahmud. Syed Mahmud was an influential Muslim journalist, writer, and intellectual in the early 20th century. In his book, he discussed the social, political, and educational condition of Indian Muslims and called for their upliftment.

(d) The Lahore Resolution, also known as the Pakistan Resolution, was proposed by Sher-e-Bengal A.K. Fazlul Huq. He was a prominent political leader from Bengal and served as the Prime Minister of Bengal. The Lahore Resolution, passed on March 23, 1940, called for the creation of an independent Muslim-majority state in the regions of British India where Muslims were in the majority.

(e) The Hindu community reacted negatively to the Lahore Resolution. They were opposed to the idea of partition and the creation of a separate Muslim state. Hindu leaders and organizations saw the resolution as a threat to the unity and integrity of India. This eventually led to the partition of India and the creation of India and Pakistan.

(f) The Awami Muslim League was founded on June 23, 1949. It was established by Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy, a prominent political leader from Bengal. The Awami Muslim League aimed to bring together Muslims and Hindus in East Pakistan and promote their political interests.

(g) The word 'Muslim' was removed from the name of the Awami Muslim League in 1955 to reflect a broader and more inclusive political platform. The party renamed itself as the Awami League to attract a wider range of supporters beyond just Muslims and appeal to a more diverse population.

(h) The Tamaddun Majlish was founded in 1926. It was established by Kazi Abdul Wadud and other progressive Muslim intellectuals and activists. The organization aimed to promote education, culture, and social reforms among Muslims in British India.

(i) The four parties that formed the United Front in Bengal were the Awami League, Krishak Praja Party, Hindu Mahasabha, and Communist Party. The United Front was a coalition formed to contest the provincial elections in Bengal in 1954 against the ruling Muslim League.

(j) The United Front government took its oath on April 3, 1954. After winning the provincial elections in Bengal, the United Front formed the government with the support of the coalition parties. It marked a significant political development and represented a united front against the ruling Muslim League.

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If a firm practices first-degree price discrimination, the firm must: lack market power but know how its customers differ by their willingness to pay for the product. have customers with identical demand curves. be able to identify each customer's demand curve after the customer buys the product. have complete information about each customer's unique demand curve before the customer buys the product.

Answers

If a firm practices first-degree price discrimination, it must have complete information about each customer's unique demand curve before the customer buys the product. This means that the firm must be able to identify and understand the individual preferences and willingness to pay of each customer.
The other statements regarding market power, identical demand curves, and identifying demand curves after the purchase are not accurate representations of first-degree price discrimination.

First-degree price discrimination, also known as perfect price discrimination, involves charging each customer their maximum willingness to pay for a product. In order to implement this pricing strategy, the firm must have complete information about each customer's unique demand curve before the customer makes a purchase. This implies that the firm knows exactly how much each customer is willing to pay for the product and can tailor the price accordingly.

Having market power, which refers to the ability to influence prices and control market conditions, is not a requirement for first-degree price discrimination. The focus is on the firm's ability to gather and utilize information about individual customer preferences.
Additionally, first-degree price discrimination does not assume that customers have identical demand curves. On the contrary, it relies on the understanding that each customer has a different willingness to pay, and pricing is customized accordingly.

Identifying demand curves after the customer buys the product is not a characteristic of first-degree price discrimination. The firm needs to possess information about the customer's demand curve beforehand in order to set prices that maximize profits based on individual willingness to pay.

In summary, first-degree price discrimination requires complete information about each customer's unique demand curve before the purchase, allowing the firm to charge the maximum price each customer is willing to pay.
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You have $100,000 to invest for six months and you believe that PPP holds. The spot exchange rate of an Australian dollar is $0.789. What is the FV in USD if you invest in the Australian market and bring the money back to US?
a. 103231 ) b. 152933.46 c. 164234 d. 101989

Answers

The correct option is a. 103231.

Given that you have $100,000 to invest for six months, the spot exchange rate of an Australian dollar is $0.789.

Let's calculate the FV in USD if you invest in the Australian market and bring the money back to the US.

To calculate the FV in USD if you invest in the Australian market and bring the money back to the US, use the following formula;

FV = Principal x (1 + i)n

Where; Principal (P) = $100,000

i = Interest rate (we don't have this information, so we cannot calculate this) and

n = 6 months/12 months = 0.5

Let's calculate the future value of $100,000 AUD in AUD:

FV(AUD) = 100,000 x (1 + i)0.5  = 100,000 x (1.01)0.5

Since PPP holds, the spot exchange rate of an Australian dollar is $0.789.

Therefore, the future value of $100,000 AUD in USD is:

FV(USD) = FV(AUD) x Spot exchange rate = 100,000 x (1.01)0.5 x 0.789FV(USD) ≈ $103,231

Hence, the FV in USD if you invest in the Australian market and bring the money back to the US is $103,231.

Therefore, the correct option is a. 103231.

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